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dexar [7]
2 years ago
6

What does the remainder theorem conclude given that f(x)/x+3 has a remainder of 11?

Mathematics
1 answer:
maw [93]2 years ago
8 0

The conclusion of the remainder theorem about a situation where a function; f(x) is divided by (x+3) and has a remainder of 11 is that; f(-3) = 11.

<h3>What does the remainder theorem conclude given that f(x)/x+3 has a remainder of 11?</h3>

It follows from the task content that f(x)/x+3 has a remainder of 11.

On this note, it follows from the remainder theorem regarding the division of polynomials that; when; x + 3= 0; x = -3 and hence;

f(-3) = 11.

Ultimately, the inference that can be drawn from the remainder theorem statement as in the task content is; f(-3) = 11.

Read more on remainder theorem;

brainly.com/question/13328536

#SPJ1

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Which of the following has six faces?
nadezda [96]

Answer:

Cube

Step-by-step explanation:

Im not sure what the option choices are but a cube has 6 faces. :)

7 0
4 years ago
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Which is the value of 3b² — b when b = 5?
yanalaym [24]

Answer:

The answer is

<h2>70</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

3b² - b

when b = 5

Substitute the value of b that's 5 into the expression

That's

3(5)² - 5

= 3(25) - 5

= 75 - 5

We have the final answer as

<h3>70</h3>

Hope this helps you

3 0
3 years ago
Hey what is 2(1+5x)-3x=72
S_A_V [24]

Answer:

x = 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Rearrange terms

2(5+1)−3=72

Distribute

10+2−3=72

Combine like terms

7+2=72

Subtract 2 from both sides of the equation

7+2−2=72−2

Simplify

7=70

Divide both sides of the equation by the same term

7/7=70/7

Simplify

= 10

if you could give brainliest that would be awesome! :))

3 0
3 years ago
Verify the identity sin (x + ???? / 2) = cos(x) for all real numbers x by using a graph.
Tamiku [17]

Answer:

See proof and explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

First we can proof this analitically first using the following property:

sin(a+b) = sin(a) cos(b) + sin (b) cos(a)

If we apply this into our formula we got:

sin (x + \frac{\pi}{2}) = sin (x) cos(\frac{\pi}{2}) + sin (\frac{\pi}{2}) cos (x)

And if we simplify we got:

sin (x + \frac{\pi}{2}) = sin (\frac{\pi}{2}) cos (x)= cos (x)

And that complete the proof.

If we analyze the graphs sin(x) and cos (x) we see that we have a gap between two graphs of \pi/2 as we can see on the figure attached.

When we do the transformation sin(x +\pi/2) we are moving to the left \pi/2 units and then would be exactly the cos function.

4 0
3 years ago
London eye
mamaluj [8]

Answer: the equation is zero in the middle. The rest of your numbers are around the graph.

7 0
3 years ago
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