Are the compositions of f(x) = 1 and g(x) = 2 commutative? Why or why not?
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In accordance with <em>propositional</em> logic, <em>quantifier</em> theory and definitions of <em>simple</em> and <em>composite</em> propositions, the negation of a implication has the following equivalence:
(Correct choice: iii)
<h3>How to find the equivalent form of a proposition</h3>
Herein we have a <em>composite</em> proposition, that is, the union of <em>monary</em> and <em>binary</em> operators and <em>simple</em> propositions. According to <em>propositional</em> logic and <em>quantifier</em> theory, the negation of an implication is equivalent to:
To learn more on propositions: brainly.com/question/14789062
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