The magnetic field lines start at a magnet's north pole and end at the south pole.
A. They begin on north poles and end on south poles.
<u>Explanation:</u>
Magnetic field lines are a visual instrument used to speak to attractive fields. They portray the bearing of the attractive power on a north monopole at some random position. The north post of one magnet draws in the south shaft however repulses the north shaft of another magnet dissimilar to shafts pull in and like shafts repulse.
A metal is a magnet on the off chance that it repulses a known magnet. Be that as it may, the Magnetic field lines don't simply end at the tip of the magnet. They go directly through it so that inside the magnet the attractive field focuses from the south shaft toward the north post.
Answer:
final volume = 640 ml
Explanation:
To answer this question, we will use Boyle's law which states that:
"At constant temperature, the product of the pressure and the volume of a given mass of gas will be constant"
Thereore:
P1V1 = P2V2
800*560 = 700*V2
V2 = 640 ml
Hope this helps :)
Answer:
Explanation:
In a standing wave function characterized for x between (0.a). on the off chance that the amplitude of the wave interchange from positive to negative at the interval. there probably been a node at , among 0 and a to such an extent that . The reasoning is right that the likelihood of discovering the particle at the node is 0 in light of the fact that by definition, the nodes of the wave are the place where the wave function falls and is equivalent to 0. Since the likelihood of discovering a particle at a position at time , is provided by , this implies that at the nodes of a standing wave,
So the reasoning that the likelihood of the particle being at is 0 is right.
However, to examine whether the particle can travel from a position to a position of . All together words, can the molecule be found on one or the other side of the node?
The appropriate response is yes.
Recall that in quantum mechanics. wave functions at most present with the likelihood of discovering a particle at a specific time inside a time frame. The wave function doesn't present with an old classical actual trajectory that a particle should follow to go in space: all things being equal, it simply yields chances of whether a particle can be found in a specific spot at a specific time. So the reasoning that a particle can't get from a position to a position of , is incorrect.
I think an airplane van slowing to a stop