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max2010maxim [7]
1 year ago
6

Translate the sentence into an inequality.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Leto [7]1 year ago
5 0

5b + 29 ≤ -25 is the translation of the phrase "the sum of a number times 5 and 29 is at most -25"

<h3>How to translate an English phrase into an algebraic equation?</h3>

Given the phrase in the question;

The sum of a number times 5 and 29 is at most -25.

First, we translate;

Let the unknown number represented by b.

  • A number times 5 ⇒ b × 5 ⇒ 5b
  • Sum ⇒ 5b + 29
  • Inequality sign for at most -25 ⇒ less than or equal to ⇒ ≤ -25

Now we combine the terms;

5b + 29 ≤ -25

We can go and solve for the unknown number.

5b + 29 ≤ -25

Subtract 29 from both sides

5b + 29 - 29 ≤ -25 - 29

5b ≤ -25 - 29

5b ≤ -54

b ≤ -54/5

Therefore, the translation of the phrase is 5b + 29 ≤ -25.

Learn more about inequality here: brainly.com/question/20383699

#SPJ1

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Answer:

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Project B is more profitable

Step-by-step explanation:

The NPV gives the difference between the present value of cash inflow and cash outflow over a certain period of time.

The Internal rate of return is the discount rate which makes the NPV of an investment 0. It is used to estimate the potential return on an investment. Investments with higher IRR are said to be better than those with lower IRR value.

Using the net present value, (NPV) Calculator, the NPV for project A is : $703,888.64

The IRR of project A is : 44.882%

The NPV for Project B is : $5,241.26

The Internal rate of return (IRR) : 49.662%

From the Internal rate of return value obtained, we can conclude that, project B is more profitable as it has a higher IRR than project A.

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2 years ago
Find the area of this sector
slavikrds [6]

Answer:

1492.885

Step-by-step explanation:

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for 360°  and A=pi*576

for 360-63= 297°  and A= (297*576*pi) / 360 = 1,492.885 m²

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Answer:

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5 0
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spayn [35]

Answer:

The answer would be B.

Step-by-step explanation: It is this answer because if it asks you 1 to 5, that means it is one, and then to 5.


Hope this answer helps!


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kolbaska11 [484]

Answer:

  see below

Step-by-step explanation:

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Perhaps the easiest image point to find is the one at lower left. In the pre-image it is 2 units left of the center of dilation, so the image point will be 2×2 = 4 units left of the center of dilation. It will be located at (-6, -2).

Other points on the image can be found either by reference to the center of dilation, or by reference to known image points. For example, the next point clockwise is 1 left and 4 up in the pre-image, so will be 2 left and 8 up from (-6, -2) in the image. That is, the pre-image point (-5, 2) becomes image point (-8, 6). You will note that (-5, 2) is 3 left and 4 up from the center of dilation, and that (-8, 6) is 6 left and 8 up from the center of dilation (twice as far away).

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