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mina [271]
1 year ago
11

A man pays an income tax Rs.840 paying 5 paisa per rupee. How much does he pay if rate is 8 paisa per rupee?​

Mathematics
2 answers:
brilliants [131]1 year ago
5 0

Answer:

Rs. 1344

Step-by-step explanation:

Man pays 5 paise for 1 rupee

and there is 100 paise in 1 rupee

so number of rupee = 100 / 5 = Rs. 20

total amount of money borrowed = 20 × 840 = Rs. 16800

amount paid if rate of tax is 8 rupee per paise

= 16800 / (100 / 8)

= 16800 / 12.5

= Rs. 1344

Elenna [48]1 year ago
3 0

Answer:

Rs.1344

Step-by-step explanation:

Rs is the <u>currency sign</u> for rupee.

100 paisa = 1 rupee

⇒ 1 paisa = 0.01 rupee

If the man pays tax of Rs.840 at a rate of <u>5 paisa per rupee</u>, then:

\begin{aligned}\implies \textsf{Total income} &=\dfrac{\textsf{Income tax}}{\textsf{Rate}} \\\\&=\sf \dfrac{840}{0.05}\\\\ &= \sf Rs.16800\end{aligned}

If the rate of tax is increased to <u>8 paisa per rupee</u>, then:

\begin{aligned}\implies \textsf{Income tax}&=\sf Income \times rate \\&=\sf 16800 \times 0.08\\ &= \sf Rs.1344\end{aligned}

Therefore, the man will pay Rs.1344 income tax if the rate is 8 paisa per rupee.

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