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Wewaii [24]
3 years ago
5

What does 23/2 reduce down to in its simplest form?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Lunna [17]3 years ago
5 0

To simplify this improper fraction we can turn it into a mixed number. The fact that the denominator is 2 and the numerator isn't divisible by 2 shows that it can't simplified any further as a improper fraction.

23/2 = 11 1/2

Best of Luck!

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A. x = 2, y =6<br> B. x = 2, y =3<br> C. x =-2, y =3<br> D. x = -3, y =2
AlekseyPX

Answer:

The correct answer is A) x = 2 and y = 6

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to find the answer, we need to set the hypotenuses equal to each other. Then we can solve for y to get the equation.

y - 1 = x + 3

y = x + 4

Now we can do the same with the leg lengths.

y - 3 = 2x - 1

y = 2x + 2

Now that we have two equations, we can set them equal to each other to get the x value.

x + 4 = 2x + 2

4 = x + 2

2 = x

Now that we have x, we can plug it into any equation to get the y value.

y = x + 4

y = 2 + 4

y = 6

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Daniel [21]

Answer:

2 1/4

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3 years ago
0.0338 divided by 1.3
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NeTakaya

Answer:

Option B. A = (5/6)^-⅛

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question given above, we obtained:

(5/6)ˣ = A¯⁸ˣ

We can obtain the value of A as follow:

(5/6)ˣ = A¯⁸ˣ

Cancel x from both side

5/6 = A¯⁸

Recall:

M¯ⁿ = 1/Mⁿ

A¯⁸ = 1/A⁸

Thus,

5/6 = 1/A⁸

Cross multiply

5 × A⁸ = 6

Divide both side by 5

A⁸ = 6/5

Take the 8th root of both sides

A = ⁸√(6/5)

Recall

ⁿ√M = M^1/n

Thus,

⁸√(6/5) = (6/5)^⅛

Therefore,

A = (6/5)^⅛

Recall:

(A/B)ⁿ = (B/A)¯ⁿ

(6/5)^⅛ = (5/6)^-⅛

Therefore,

A = (5/6)^-⅛

8 0
3 years ago
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