Answer:
a. because it is an element
Explanation:
its pure because it only has one type of atom, making it an element
Answer:
- <u><em>Magnesium and fluorine.</em></u>
Explanation:
<em>Ionic compounds</em> are formed by the electrostatic attraction of cations and anions.
Cations, positive ions, are formed when atoms lose electrons, and anions, negative ions, are formed when atoms gain electrons.
When two different atoms have similar atraction for electrons (electronegativity) they will not donate to nor catch electrons from each other, so cations and anions will not be formed. Instead, the atoms would prefer to share electrons forming covalent bonds to complete their outermost shell (octet rule).
Then, in order to form ionic compounds the electronegativities have to substantially different. This situation does not happen between two nonmetal elements, which nitrogen and sulfur are. Then, you can predict safely that nitrogen and sulfur will not form an ionic compound.
Ionic compounds, then require the electronegativity difference that exist between some metals and nonmetals. Being magnesium an alkaline earth metal, its electronegativity is very low. On the other hand, fluorine the first element of the group 17, has the highest electronegativity of all the elements.Thus magnesium and fluorine will have enough electronegativity difference to justify the exchange of electrons, forming ions and, consequently, ionic compounds.
The trough and the hill part
Answer:
Electronegativity in group 1 decreases as we go from Lithium to Francium.
Explanation:
Electronegativity is defined as the tendency of an element to attract an electron pair towards itself.
In a group generally this tendency decreases from top to bottom as the size of the atom increases and hence the positive nucleus get far from the outer orbital.
In the same way group 1 elements i.e. from Lithium to Francium electronegativity decreases.
Converting mmHg to atm is solved by division.
Example: Convert 745.0 to atm.
Solution- divide the mmHg value by the 760.0 mmHg / atm.
745 mmHg over 760.0 mmHg/atm
atm value is 0.980263
Now, I am a medical student and we have never had to convert a BP (blood pressure) to atm from mmHg, only ever kPA. SO, I am going to take a guess here and say that when you do the work to solve this, you are going to convert the Systolic (upper #) which is the 145. You should get 0.190789 and then convert the Diastolic (lower #) which is 65. You should get 0.08552632.
So your fraction so to speak should read, 0.190789/0.08552632 or 0.190789 over 0.08552632
(Just to note that is way to low of a BP, although it is irrelevant) Best wishes and good luck. "Remember, never just look for the right answer, look for why it is the right answer!"
