This is a strange question, and f(x) may not even exist. Why do I say that? Well..
[1] We know that f(a+b) = f(a) + f(b). Therefore, f(0+0) = f(0) + f(0). In other words, f(0) = f(0) + f(0). Subtracting, we see, f(0) - f(0) = f(0) or 0 = f(0).
[2] So, what's the problem? We found the answer, f(0) = 0, right? Maybe, but the second rule says that f(x) is always positive. However, f(0) = 0 is not positive!
Since there is a contradiction, we must either conclude that the single value f(0) does not exist, or that the entire function f(x) does not exist.
To fix this, we could instead say that "f(x) is always nonnegative" and then we would be safe.
Put into slope intercept form, y=mx+b where m=slope
p=-2q+6
slope is -2
subsitute values for q and get values for p
q=0, p=6
(q,p)
(0,6)
(1,4)
p=q+4
slope is 1
subsitutte
q=0,p=4
(q,p)
(0,4)
(1,5)
below are the graphs
183.9 millimeters is the answer
Step-by-step explanation:
closest approximation to π/4 = 0.785
The sale price of 3 bottles of shampoo is 3s and the regular price is 3r. The amount of money you save will only come in when you buy 3. The cost you save is the difference between the regular price and the sale price. The equation is therefore,
c = 3r - 3s
