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ioda
3 years ago
7

Two well-known NP-complete problems are 3-SAT and TSP, the traveling salesman problem. The 2-SAT problem is a SAT variant in whi

ch each clause contains at most two literals. 2-SAT is known to have a polynomial-time algorithm. Is each of the following statements true or false?
1. 3-SAT ≤p TSP.2. If P ¹ NP, then 3-SAT ≤p 2-SAT.3. If P ¹ NP, then no NP-complete problem can be solved in polynomial time.
Engineering
1 answer:
Hitman42 [59]3 years ago
7 0

3-SAT ≤p TSP

If P ¹ NP, then no NP-complete problem can be solved in polynomial time.

both the statements are true.

<u>Explanation:</u>

  • 3-SAT ≤p TSP due to any  complete problem of NP to other problem by exits of reductions.
  • If P ¹ NP, then 3-SAT ≤p 2-SAT are the polynomial time algorithm are not for 3-SAT. In P, 2-SAT is found, 3- SAT polynomial time algorithm implies the exit of reductions. 3 SAT does not have polynomial time algorithm when P≠NP.
  • If P ¹ NP, then no NP-complete problem can be solved in polynomial time. because for the NP complete problem individually gets the polynomial time algorithm for the others. It may be in P for all the problems, the implication of latter is P≠NP.
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The current in a 20 mH inductor is known to be: 푖푖=40푚푚푚푚푡푡≤0푖푖=푚푚1푒푒−10,000푡푡+푚푚2푒푒−40,000푡푡푚푚푡푡≥0The voltage across the induct
Anni [7]

Answer:

a) The expression for electrical current: i = -0.134*e^(-10,000*t) + 0.174*e^(-40,000*t) A

The expression for voltage: v = 26.8*e^(-10,000*t) - 139.2*e^(-40,000*t) V

b) For t<=0 the inductor is storing energy and for t > 0 the inductor is delivering energy.

Explanation:

The question text is corrupted. I found the complete question on the web and it goes as follow:

The current in a 20 mH inductor is known to be: i = 40 mA at t<=0 and i = A1*e^(-10,000*t) + A2*e^(-40,000*t) A at t>0. The voltage across the inductor (passive sign convention) is -68 V at t = 0.

a. Find the numerical expressions for i and v for t>0.

b. Specify the time intervals when the inductor is storing energy and is delivering energy.

A inductor stores energy in the form of a magnetic field, it behaves in a way that oposes sudden changes in the electric current that flows through it, therefore at moment just after t = 0, that for convenience we'll call t = 0+, the current should be the same as t=0, so:

i = A1*e^(-10,000*(0)) + A2*e^(-40,000*(0))

40*10^(-3) = A1*e^(-10,000*0) + A2*e^(-40,000*0)

40*10^(-3) = (A1)*1 + (A2)*1

40*10^(-3) = A1 + A2

A1 + A2 = 40*10^(-3)

Since we have two variables (A1 and A2) we need another equation to be able to solve for both. For that reason we will use the voltage expression for a inductor, that is:

V = L*di/dt

We have the voltage drop across the inductor at t=0 and we know that the current at t=0 and the following moments after that should be equal, so we can use the current equation for t > 0 to find the derivative on that point, so:

di/dt = d(A1*e^(-10,000*t) + A2*e^(-40,000*t))/dt

di/dt = [d(-10,000*t)/dt]*A1*e^(-10,000*t) + [d(-40,000*t)/dt]*A2*e^(-40,000*t)

di/dt = -10,000*A1*e^(-10,000*t) -40,000*A2*e^(-40,000*t)

By applying t = 0 to this expression we have:

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1*e^(-10,000*0) - 40,000*A2*e^(-40,000*0)

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1*e^0 - 40,000*A2*e^0

di/dt (at t = 0) = -10,000*A1- 40,000*A2

We can now use the voltage equation for the inductor at t=0, that is:

v = L di/dt (at t=0)

68 = [20*10^(-3)]*(-10,000*A1 - 40,000*A2)

68 = -400*A1 -800*A2

-400*A1 - 800*A2 = 68

We now have a system with two equations and two variable, therefore we can solve it for both:

A1 + A2 = 40*10^(-3)

-400*A1 - 800*A2 = 68

Using the first equation we have:

A1 = 40*10^(-3) - A2

We can apply this to the second equation to solve for A2:

-400*[40*10^(-3) - A2] - 800*A2 = 68

-1.6 + 400*A2 - 800*A2 = 68

-1.6 -400*A2 = 68

-400*A2 = 68 + 1.6

A2 = 69.6/400 = 0.174

We use this value of A2 to calculate A1:

A1 = 40*10^(-3) - 0.174 = -0.134

Applying these values on the expression we have the equations for both the current and tension on the inductor:

i = -0.134*e^(-10,000*t) + 0.174*e^(-40,000*t) A

v = [20*10^(-3)]*[-10,000*(-0.134)*e^(-10,000*t) -40,000*(0.174)*e^(-40,000*t)]

v = [20*10^(-3)]*[1340*e^(-10,000*t) - 6960*e^(-40,000*t)]

v = 26.8*e^(-10,000*t) - 139.2*e^(-40,000*t) V

b) The question states that the current for the inductor at t > 0 is a exponential powered by negative numbers it is expected that its current will reach 0 at t = infinity. So, from t =0 to t = infinity the inductor is delivering energy. Since at time t = 0 the inductor already has a current flow of 40 mA and a voltage, we can assume it already had energy stored, therefore for t<0 it is storing energy.

8 0
3 years ago
What is the gear ratio of the given train
Olin [163]

Answer:

1/4

Explanation:

.......................

7 0
2 years ago
A hypothetical metal alloy has a grain diameter of 2.4 × 10−2 mm. After a heat treatment at 575°C for 500 min, the grain diamete
Alex

Answer:

The time required is 10.078 hours or 605 min

Explanation:

The formula to apply here is ;

K=(d²-d²₀ )/t

where t is time in hours

d is grain diameter to be achieved after heating in mm

d₀ is the grain diameter before heating in mm

Given

d=5.5 × 10^-2 mm

d₀=2.4 × 10^-2 mm

t₁= 500 min = 500/60 =25/3 hrs

t₂=?

n=2.2

First find K

K=(d²-d²₀ )/t₁

K={ (5.1 × 10^-2 mm)²-(2.4 × 10−2 mm)² }/ 25/3

K=(0.051²-0.024²) ÷25/2

K=0.000243 mm²/h

Re-arrange equation for K ,to get the equation for d as;

d=√(d₀²+ Kt)  where now t=t₂

d=\sqrt{0.024^2+0.000243*t} \\\\0.055=\sqrt{0.024^2+0.000243t} \\\\0.055^2=0.024^2+0.000243t\\\\0.055^2-0.024^2=0.000243t\\\\0.002449=0.000243t\\\\0.002449/0.000243=t\\\\10.078=t\\\\t=605min

4 0
3 years ago
Damage reports should contain the information needed for what?
SIZIF [17.4K]

Answer:

<h2>it's damage kindly be careful</h2>
3 0
2 years ago
A square-thread power screw is used to raise or lower the basketball board in a gym, the weight of which is W = 100kg. See the f
KIM [24]

Answer:

power = 49.95 W

and it is self locking screw

Explanation:

given data

weight W = 100 kg = 1000 N

diameter d = 20mm

pitch p = 2mm

friction coefficient of steel f = 0.1

Gravity constant is g = 10 N/kg

solution

we know T is

T = w tan(α + φ ) \frac{dm}{2}     ...................1

here dm is = do - 0.5 P

dm = 20 - 1

dm = 19 mm

and

tan(α) = \frac{L}{\pi dm}      ...............2

here lead L = n × p

so tan(α) = \frac{2\times 2}{\pi 19}

α = 3.83°  

and

f = 0.1

so tanφ = 0.1

so that φ = 5.71°

and  now we will put all value in equation 1 we get

T = 1000 × tan(3.83 + 5.71 ) \frac{19\times 10^{-3}}{2}  

T = 1.59 Nm

so

power = \frac{2\pi N \ T }{60}     .................3

put here value

power = \frac{2\pi \times 300\times 1.59}{60}

power = 49.95 W

and

as φ > α

so it is self locking screw

 

8 0
3 years ago
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