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Elden [556K]
3 years ago
15

How many times can 80 go in to 100

Mathematics
1 answer:
stich3 [128]3 years ago
4 0
The answer will be 1 because 80+80=160 not 100 so it cant be added twice so it has to be one.
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(25 points!!!!!) solve for <2
stiv31 [10]

Step-by-step explanation:

135 = <2 + 86 [exterior angle of triangle is equal to the sum of its oppsite two interior angles]

or, <2 = 135 - 86

so, <2 = 49°

8 0
2 years ago
Andrew sold 60 baseball cards to a friend . This was 80% of Andrews total baseball card collection. How many total baseball card
svetlana [45]

Answer:

75

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that 80% of Andrew's (former) baseball card collection is 60. Thus, We divide 60 by 80% (equal to 0.8) to obtain \frac{60}{0.8}=75.

7 0
3 years ago
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Please help me, question is the picture
Hitman42 [59]
The answer is 425 miles.

Both of the companies can be represented by an equation. The first company being f(a) and the second company bring f(b).
f(a)=$0.06x+65
f(b)=$0.10x+48
We want to find where they are equal, so we can set the equations equal to each other.
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8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Question 7 (1 point)<br> Solve: 8x = 56
Hunter-Best [27]

Answer:

x = 7

Step-by-step explanation:

8x = 56

To solve this, we must simplify. To do this, we must divide each side by 8. This, in term, will give us the value of x.

8x = 56

----    ----

8       8

56/8 = 7

x = 7

Our answer is x = 7

5 0
3 years ago
A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2\%2%2, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector rando
kipiarov [429]

The data in the question seems a bit erroneous. I am writing the correct question below:

A manufacturer of processing chips knows that 2%, percent of its chips are defective in some way. Suppose an inspector randomly selects 4 chips for an inspection. Assuming the chips are independent, what is the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective? Lets break this problem up into smaller pieces to understand the strategy behind solving it.

Answer:

The probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective is 0.0776.

Step-by-step explanation:

The question states that the probability of defective chips is 2% i.e. 0.02. Let p denote the probability of selecting a defective chip so, p = 0.02

An inspector selects 4 chips, which means n=4 and we need to compute the probability that at least one of the selected chips is defective. Let X be the number of defective chips selected. We need to compute P(X≥1) which means either 1, 2, 3 or 4 chips can be defective.

We will use the binomial distribution formula to solve this problem. The formula is:

<u>P(X=x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ</u>

where n = total no. of trials

          p = probability of success

          x = no. of successful trials

          q = probability of failure = 1-p

we have n=4, p=0.02 and q=1-0.02=0.98.

We need to compute P(X≥1) which is equal to:

P(X≥1) = P(X=1) + P(X=2) + P(X=3) + P(X=4)

A shorter method to do this is to use the total probability theorem:

P(X≥1) = 1 - P(X<1)

          = 1 - P(X=0)

          = 1 - ⁴C₀ (0.02)⁰(0.98)⁴⁻⁰

          = 1 - (0.98)⁴

          = 1 - 0.9224

P(X≥1) = 0.0776

4 0
3 years ago
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