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MaRussiya [10]
3 years ago
11

A particle is to move in an xy plane, clockwise around the origin as seen from the positive side of the z axis. In unit-vector n

otation, what torque acts on the particle if the magnitude of its angular momentum about the origin is (a) 4.0 kg ⋅ m2/s, (b) 4.0t2 kg ⋅ m2/s, (c) 4.0 √ t kg ⋅ m 2 / s and (d) 4.0/t2 kg ⋅ m2/s?

Physics
1 answer:
slamgirl [31]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Answer of the part (a) Torque is zero .

Answer of the part(b) Net Torque is -8t N.m .

Answer of the part (c) is -2 (t)^-(1/2) N.m  .

Answer of the part (d) is 8(t)^-(3) N.m .

Explanation:

Explanation of all parts is in the following attachments.

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What are the components of friction?
Tresset [83]
<h2>Answer:</h2>

<u>Friction:</u>

When an object slips on a surface, an opposing force acts between the tangent planes which acts in the opposite direction of motion. This opposing force is called Friction. Or in other words, Friction is the opposing force that opposes the motion between two surfaces.

The main component of friction are:

<u>Normal Reaction (R): </u>

Suppose a block is placed on a table in the above picture, which is in resting state, then two forces are acting on it at that time.

The first is due to its weight mg which is working from its center of gravity towards the vertical bottom.

The second one is superimposed vertically upwards by the table on the block, called the reaction force (P). This force passes through the center of gravity of the block.

Due to P = mg, the box is in equilibrium position on the table.

<u>Coefficient of friction ( </u>μ )<u>: </u>

The ratio of the force of friction and the reaction force is called the coefficient of friction.

Coefficient of friction, µ = force of friction / reaction force

μ = F / R

The coefficient of friction is volume less and dimensionless.

Its value is between 0 to 1.

<u>Advantage and disadvantage from friction force: </u>

  • The advantage of the force of friction is that due to friction, we can walk on the earth without slipping.
  • Brakes in all vehicles are due to the force of friction.
  • We can write on the board only because of the force of friction.
  • The disadvantage of this force is that due to friction, some parts of energy are lost in the machines and there is wear and tear on the machines.

<u>How to reduce friction: </u>

  • Using lubricants (oil or grease) in machines.
  • Friction can be reduced by using ball bearings etc.
  • Using a soap solution and powder.

4 0
3 years ago
If the charge on the negative plate of the capacitor is 121 nano-Coulomb, how many excess electrons are on that plate? Write you
Julli [10]

Answer:

n = 756.25 giga electrons

Explanation:

It is given that,

If the charge on the negative plate of the capacitor, Q=121\ nC=121\times 10^{-9}\ C

Let n is the number of excess electrons are on that plate. Using the quantization of charges, the total charge on the negative plate is given by :

Q=ne

e is the charge on electron

n=\dfrac{Q}{e}

n=\dfrac{121\times 10^{-9}}{1.6\times 10^{-19}}

n=7.5625\times 10^{11}

or

n = 756.25 giga electrons

So, there are 756.25 giga electrons are on the plate. Hence, this is the required solution.

6 0
3 years ago
Why does the frequency of a siren get higher as an ambulance using that siren gets closer​
morpeh [17]
Yes it does that’s correct
6 0
3 years ago
200-grams of computer chips with a specific heat of 0.3 kJ/kg·K are initially at 25°C. These chips are cooled by placement in 0.
balu736 [363]

Answer:

a. -0.01324 kJ/K,  b.  = 0.03233 kJ/K , c.  = 0.01909, Yes the process is possible

Explanation:

Heat transfer will occur between the chip and the surrounding fluid. Then, finally they will attain a common equilibrium temperature and heat transfer will stop. Now, if we assume that, after heat transfer, chip will attain the temperature of fluid, that is, -34 C,, So , to check whether this is possible

Amount of energy lost by the chip = m . c . (T(i) - T(f))

= 0.2 x 0.3 (25 + 34) = 3.54 KJ

Now, to evaluate the final state of the fluid, after the heat transfer completion,

Energy Gained = m(mew final – mew initial) = m[(μf+ x . μfg) - μf]

Note that heat transfer will change the internal energy of the fluid. Do not consider enthalpy change, as this is not a problem involving fluid flow in and out of the system

M[(μf+ x . μfg) - μf] = m(xμfg)

<u>Energy gained by the fluid will be equal to the energy lost by the chip (No energy loss to the surroundings)</u>

3.54 = 0.1 . X x 203.29

<u>x = 0.1741, which is the dryness fraction of fluid at the final state.</u>

Observe that the total energy lost by the chips is 3.45 kJ and fluid R-134a has got its value of mew fg at -34 C which is = 203.29 kJ/kg

So for 0.1kg of R-134a

0.1 x μfg= <u>20.329 kJ, which is much greater than 3.45 kJ</u>, therefore, it is certain that the state of fluid will be at -34 C only and at the saturation pressure of 69.56 KPa. So the chip will come to attain the temperature of -34 C.  

a. Write the equation for the change of entropy in the chips

ΔSchips = mchips . c . ln(T2/T1), where mc is the mass of chips, c is the specific heat of chips, T2 is the temperature at state 2 and T1 is the temperature at state 1

Substitute mc = 0.2 kg, c = 0.3kJ/kg.K, T1 = 25 + 273, T2 = -34 + 273

delSchips = 0.2 x 0.3 x ln [(-34+273)/ (25+273)]

= -0.01324 kJ/K

There fore the change in entropy of the chips is -0.01324 kJ/K

b. Entropy change of fluid R- 134a

ΔS2 = m[Sfinal – S initial]

= m[Sf + x . Sfg - Sf]

= 0.2 x (0.1741 x 0.92859)

= 0.03233 kJ/K

c. Calculate the total change in the entropy of the entire system

delS = delSchips + delSR -134a

= -0.01324 + 0.03233

= 0.01909

<u>Since the total change in entropy of the entire system is positive that exactly explains that the actual processes are happening in the direction of increase of entropy therefore, the process is possible.</u>

<u />

6 0
3 years ago
B. Assuming the acceleration is still -9.81 m/s2, what is the instantaneous velocity of the
goblinko [34]

We have that the instantaneous velocity of the shuttlecock when it hits the ground is

V_{int}=\sqrt{U^2+19.6H}

From the question we are told

Assuming the acceleration is still -9.81 m/s2, what is the instantaneous velocity of the

shuttlecock when it hits the ground? Show your work below.

Generally the equation for acceleration  is mathematically given as

a=v \frac{dv}{dx}\\\\\Therefore\\\\\2ah=v^2-u^2

Where

acceleration is still -9.81 m/s2,

Hence,

V^2-U^2=2(-9.81)*-H

Therefore

V_{int}=\sqrt{U^2+19.6H}

For more information on this visit

brainly.com/question/12319416?referrer=searchResults

7 0
2 years ago
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