Answer:
Your correct answer is option C. -2 (9 + 32n)
Step-by-step explanation:
Solution:
Options are not given in the question
Given First degree expression:
-18-64n
= (-2)×9 + (-2)×32n
Take (-2) common, we get
= (-2)( 9+32n)
Therefore you get your answer of option C. -2(9+32n)
Answer:
Since the balls are drawn with replacement, it means the individual probability remain constant,
I have solved this problem on paper (Figures Attached).
Thanks.
Answer:
-3/5
Step-by-step explanation:
tan = opp/adj using pathagorean the hypt is 5
cos = 3/5
tan is negative in quad 2 and 4
sin is positive in quad 1 and 2
so because tan is negative and sine is positive the cosine is negative
-3/5
Answer:
incorrect length is 12.5
actual length is 11
12.5-11
1.5
1.5/12.5 ×100
20%
Step-by-step explanation:
hope it helps
