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astraxan [27]
3 years ago
10

A 780g, 50-cm-long metal rod is free to rotate about a frictionless axle at one end. While at rest, the rod is given a short but

sharp 1000N hammer blow at the CENTER of the rod, aimed in a direction that causes the rod to rotate on the axle. The blow lasts a mere 2.5ms.
What is the rod's angular velocity immediately after the blow? The book gives the answer 8.0rad/s
Physics
1 answer:
Semmy [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

9.6 rad/s

Explanation:

L = length of the metal rod = 50 cm = 0.50 m

M = Mass of the long metal rod = 780 g = 0.780 kg

Moment of inertia of the rod about one end is given as

I = \frac{ML^{2}}{3} = \frac{(0.780)(0.50)^{2}}{3} = 0.065 kgm^{2}

F = force applied by the hammer blow = 1000 N

Torque produced due to the hammer blow is given as

\tau = \frac{FL}{2}

\tau = \frac{(1000)(0.50)}{2}

\tau = 250 Nm

t = time of blow = 2.5 ms = 0.0025 s

w = Angular velocity after the blow

Using Impulse-change in angular momentum, we have

I w = \tau t\\(0.065) w = (250) (0.0025)\\w = 9.6 rads^{-1}

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Answer:

<em>The magnetic field through the coil at first increases steadily up to its maximum value, and then decreases gradually to its minimum value.</em>

<em></em>

Explanation:

At first, the magnet fall towards the coils;  inducing a gradually increasing magnetic field through the coil as it falls into the coil. At the instance when half the magnet coincides with the coil, the magnetic field magnitude on the coil is at its maximum value. When the magnet falls pass the coil towards the floor, the magnetic field then starts to decrease gradually from a strong magnitude to a weak magnitude.

This action creates a changing magnetic flux around the coil. The result is that an induced current is induced in the coil, and the induced current in the coil will flow in such a way as to oppose the action of the falling magnet. This is based on lenz law that states that the induced current acts in such a way as to oppose the motion or the action that produces it.

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Two identical charges, 2 m apart, exert forces of magnitude 4 N on each other. The value of each charge is: 1. 9 × 105 C 2. 4.2
lesya692 [45]

Answer:

The value of each charge is 4.22 x 10⁻⁵ C

Explanation:

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F = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r^2} \\\\but \ q_1 =q_2,then \ let \ q_1 =q_2 = q\\\\F = \frac{kq^2}{r^2}\\\\q^2 = \frac{Fr^2}{k}\\\\q^2 = \frac{4*2^2}{9*10^9} \\\\q ^2 = 1.7778*10^{-9}\\\\q = \sqrt{1.7778*10^{-9}}\\\\q =4.22 *10^{-5} C\\\\q= q_1=q_2= 4.22 *10^{-5} C

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