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Vedmedyk [2.9K]
3 years ago
13

Mechanical advantage of a simple machine is 4,what does it mean?​

Physics
1 answer:
adelina 88 [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

I hope this answer is correct

Explanation:

The mechanical advantage of a machine is 4. Mechanical advantage MA is the ratio of output (generated by the machine) force to input (applied to the machine) force. So MA = 4 means that for example if you apply 100 N then your machine will multiply that force and generate 400 N.

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O need help with this please
ANEK [815]
I think this answer is c
5 0
4 years ago
In a compound, chemical energy is contained in the ______________________
Lelechka [254]
B Nuclei of the atoms

8 0
3 years ago
The diagrams below each show the motion of a distant star relative to Earth (not to scale). The red arrows indicate the speed an
abruzzese [7]

Answer:

The ranking of the stars are 5 → 2 → 4 → 3 → 1

Explanation:

To solve the question, we note that an approaching star has a blue-shift, a regressing star has a red-shift and a crossing star will have no shift.

The magnitude of the blue-shift or red-shift is dependent on the speed of the stars.

Therefore we have the rank of the stars based on the Doppler shift that would be detected on earth from largest blue-shift to largest red-shift given as

5 → 2 → 4 → 3 → 1.

3 0
4 years ago
If a spring with a spring constant k = 10 n/m is stretched from its equilibrium position by 0.1 m , and released, what would be
Katen [24]
2 weeks ago, oh boy.

So we know k is 10 N/m and it is stretch 0.1m. 
For the conservation of energy, we know the mechanical energy in the system is constant, and we know the energy switches from potential elastic energy to kinetic energy. So we can solve for the maximum potential elastic energy, which should tell us the mechanical energy.

Since we are told it is stretch 0.1m and we are given the spring constant, we can solve for max potential elastic energy.

Mechanical energy = Max potential = 0.5kA^2

This gives us 0.5(10N/m)(0.1m)^2 = 0.05J

The maximum kinetic energy is when the potential elastic energy is zero, thus 0.05J would be the maximum kinetic energy.

Hope this helps! 
5 0
3 years ago
Two point charges, the first with a charge of +3.50 10-8 C and the second with a charge of -4.50x10-6C, are separated by 25.0 cm
EastWind [94]

Answer:

<u>b. 2.27 N</u>

Explanation:

Fe = (k)(Q1)(Q2) / d²

k ≈ 9 × 10⁹ N m² / C² [Coulomb's Constant] or 8.98 × 10⁹ (nearest hundredth).

q = particle charge [Coulombs; C]

d = distance [Meters; m]

Fe = Electrostatic force [Newtons; N]

________________________________

Fe = (9×10⁹)(3.5 × 10^(-8)(-4.5 × 10^(-6))/(.25)² N =

(9)(3.5)(-4.5) × (10^(9))(10^(-8))(10^(-6) / (.25)² N =

(9)(3.5)(-4.5) × (10^(9 - 8 - 6)) / (.25)² N =

(-141.75) × 10^(-5) / (.0625) N =

141.75 × 10^(-5) / (.0625) N

[opposite direction] =

(1.4175 × 10^(2)) × 10^(-5) / (.0625) N

[opposite direction] =

1.4175 × 10^(-3) / .0625 N

[opposite direction] =

1.4175 × 10^(-3) / 6.25 × 10^(-2) N =

14.175 / 6.25 N [opposite direction] =

2.268 N ≈ 2.27 N [opposite direction].

3 0
3 years ago
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