Answer:
$56,000 Favorable
Explanation:
The computation of the flexible-budget amount for variable manufacturing overhead is shown below
The Budgeted machine hours per unit os
= 24,000 ÷ 8,000
= 3
The Budgeted machine hours allowed for 8,500 units is
= 8,500 × 3
= 25,500
Now the Budgeted variable overhead rate per machine hour is
= $288,000 ÷ 24,000
= $12.00
Now
Flexible-budget amount is
= 25,500 × $12.00
= $306,000
So, the Flexible-budget variance is
= $250,000 - $306,000
= $56,000 Favorable
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Answer :
The Fisher formula is expressed as 1+R = (1 + r) x (1+ h) where R is the nominal rate, r is the real rate, and h is the inflation rate.
Answer:
A. Expensed when incurred.
Explanation:
An incurred expense is basically the cost that are unpaid for. Paid expenses are incurred expenses once you paid for it (Eg credit card).
Answer:
a-The present value of revenue in the first year is $61,085.92.
b-The total time it would take to pay for its price is 2.44 years of 29.33 months.
Explanation:
a-
Let the function of the revenue earned is given as
![S(t)=\left \{ {{66000t+38000} {\ \ 0The present value is given as [tex]PV=\int\limits^a_b {S(t)e^{-rt}} \, dt](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=S%28t%29%3D%5Cleft%20%5C%7B%20%7B%7B66000t%2B38000%7D%20%7B%5C%20%5C%200%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3EThe%20present%20value%20is%20given%20as%20%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3E%5Btex%5DPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5Ea_b%20%7BS%28t%29e%5E%7B-rt%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt)
Here
- a and b are the limits of integral which are 0 and 1 respectively
- r is the rate of interest which is 5% or 0.05
- S(t) is the function of value which is
![S(t)=\left \{ {{66000t+38000} {\ \ 0So the equation becomes[tex]PV=\int\limits^0_1 {S(t)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(66000t+38000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{1}_{0.5}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(66000t)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{0.5}_0 {(38000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt+\int\limits^{1}_{0.5}{(71000)e^{-0.05t}} \, dt\\PV=8113.7805+18764.4669+34207.6751\\PV=61085.9225](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=S%28t%29%3D%5Cleft%20%5C%7B%20%7B%7B66000t%2B38000%7D%20%7B%5C%20%5C%200%3C%2Fli%3E%3C%2Ful%3E%3Cp%3ESo%20the%20equation%20becomes%3C%2Fp%3E%3Cp%3E%5Btex%5DPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E0_1%20%7BS%28t%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%5C%5CPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B0.5%7D_0%20%7B%2866000t%2B38000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B1%7D_%7B0.5%7D%7B%2871000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%5C%5CPV%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B0.5%7D_0%20%7B%2866000t%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B0.5%7D_0%20%7B%2838000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E%7B1%7D_%7B0.5%7D%7B%2871000%29e%5E%7B-0.05t%7D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%5C%5CPV%3D8113.7805%2B18764.4669%2B34207.6751%5C%5CPV%3D61085.9225)
So the present value of revenue in the first year is $61,085.92.
b-
The time in which the machine pays for itself is given as
The present value is set equal to the value of machine which is given as
$160,000 so the equation becomes:
So the total time it would take to pay for its price is 2.44 years of 29.33 months.
The answer to this question is <span>Company strengths and weaknesses.
In this context, company strength refers to all the factors that make the company stand out among other competitors in the market (such as good products, fame, good researchers, etc)
The weakness, on the other hand, refers to something that needed to be taken care of if the company want to win the competition in the market. (such as huge debt ratio, scandals, etc)
</span>
