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3 years ago

How can I identify witch of those numbers don’t belong with the other there 50.1 -50 over two -50.1 square root of 50?

Mathematics

1 answer:

PolarNik [594]3 years ago

7 0

I'm assuming you were given these four values

50.1, -50/2, -50.1, sqrt(50)

where 'sqrt' stands for 'square root', and the slash symbol means divide or fraction.

If my assumption is correct, then the term that does not belong is sqrt(50). This is because the other values are all rational. We can express them as a fraction of two whole numbers

50.1 = 501/10
-50/2 is already a fraction, no need to do any work for this one
-50.1 = -501/10

But we can't do the same with sqrt(50). It is irrational. Note how 50 is not a perfect square. Your calculator will show that sqrt(50) = 7.07106781186548 and that decimal sequence goes on forever without any pattern. If you were given sqrt(49), then it would work because sqrt(49) = 7 = 7/1.

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Evalute the experssion -280+12x=

Alina [70]

The answer is 23 1/3. First, you need to add 280 to both sides of the equations in order cancel out 280 and get 12x by itself. But remember whatever you do to one side of an equation, you must to do the other. So now you have 12x=280. Now divide both sides of the equation by 12 in order to get x completely isolated. 280 divided by twelve is 23 1/3.

4 0

2 years ago

Hiii please help i’ll give brainliest if you give a correct answer please thanks!

yKpoI14uk [10]

Answer:

<h3>Step-by-step explanation: for #2, look at 6 3/4 and make it into a decimal. Do the same to 7 1/2. Compare them both to see which one is shorter by subtracting 6 3/4 from 7 1/2 and when you get your answer for that, make that into a fraction. Predict that 6 3/4 is shorter because of how much less it is compared to 7 1/2. (I hope I helped you in some way. Good luck!)</h3>

7 0

3 years ago

1) -4.2 = y - 1.8<br> i don’t know the answer need help

anastassius [24]

Answer:

y - 1.8 = -4.2

y = -2.4 is the solution

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

You have a large jar that initially contains 30 red marbles and 20 blue marbles. We also have a large supply of extra marbles of

Dima020 [189]

Answer:

There is a 57.68% probability that this last marble is red.

There is a 20.78% probability that we actually drew the same marble all four times.

Step-by-step explanation:

Initially, there are 50 marbles, of which:

30 are red

20 are blue

Any time a red marble is drawn:

The marble is placed back, and another three red marbles are added

Any time a blue marble is drawn

The marble is placed back, and another five blue marbles are added.

The first three marbles can have the following combinations:

R - R - R

R - R - B

R - B - R

R - B - B

B - R - R

B - R - B

B - B - R

B - B - B

Now, for each case, we have to find the probability that the last marble is red. So

$P = P_{1} + P_{2} + P_{3} + P_{4} + P_{5} + P_{6} + P_{7} + P_{8}$

$P_{1}$ is the probability that we go R - R - R - R

There are 50 marbles, of which 30 are red. So, the probability of the first marble sorted being red is $\frac{30}{50} = \frac{3}{5}$ .

Now the red marble is returned to the bag, and another 3 red marbles are added.

Now there are 53 marbles, of which 33 are red. So, when the first marble sorted is red, the probability that the second is also red is $\frac{33}{53}$

Again, the red marble is returned to the bag, and another 3 red marbles are added

Now there are 56 marbles, of which 36 are red. So, in this sequence, the probability of the third marble sorted being red is $\frac{36}{56}$

Again, the red marble sorted is returned, and another 3 are added.

Now there are 59 marbles, of which 39 are red. So, in this sequence, the probability of the fourth marble sorted being red is $\frac{39}{59}$ . So

$P_{1} = \frac{3}{5}*\frac{33}{53}*\frac{36}{56}*\frac{39}{59} = \frac{138996}{875560} = 0.1588$

$P_{2}$ is the probability that we go R - R - B - R

$P_{2} = \frac{3}{5}*\frac{33}{53}*\frac{20}{56}*\frac{36}{61} = \frac{71280}{905240} = 0.0788$

$P_{3}$ is the probability that we go R - B - R - R

$P_{3} = \frac{3}{5}*\frac{20}{53}*\frac{33}{58}*\frac{36}{61} = \frac{71280}{937570} = 0.076$

$P_{4}$ is the probability that we go R - B - B - R

$P_{4} = \frac{3}{5}*\frac{20}{53}*\frac{25}{58}*\frac{33}{63} = \frac{49500}{968310} = 0.0511$

$P_{5}$ is the probability that we go B - R - R - R

$P_{5} = \frac{2}{5}*\frac{30}{55}*\frac{33}{58}*\frac{36}{61} = \frac{71280}{972950} = 0.0733$

$P_{6}$ is the probability that we go B - R - B - R

$P_{6} = \frac{2}{5}*\frac{30}{55}*\frac{25}{58}*\frac{33}{63} = \frac{49500}{1004850} = 0.0493$

$P_{7}$ is the probability that we go B - B - R - R

$P_{7} = \frac{2}{5}*\frac{25}{55}*\frac{1}{2}*\frac{33}{63} = \frac{825}{17325} = 0.0476$

$P_{8}$ is the probability that we go B - B - B - R

$P_{8} = \frac{2}{5}*\frac{25}{55}*\frac{1}{2}*\frac{30}{65} = \frac{750}{17875} = 0.0419$

So, the probability that this last marble is red is:

$P = P_{1} + P_{2} + P_{3} + P_{4} + P_{5} + P_{6} + P_{7} + P_{8} = 0.1588 + 0.0788 + 0.076 + 0.0511 + 0.0733 + 0.0493 + 0.0476 + 0.0419 = 0.5768$

There is a 57.68% probability that this last marble is red.

What's the probability that we actually drew the same marble all four times?

$P = P_{1} + P_{2}$

$P_{1}$ is the probability that we go R-R-R-R. It is the same $P_{1}$ from the previous item(the last marble being red). So $P_{1} = 0.1588$

$P_{2}$ is the probability that we go B-B-B-B. It is almost the same as $P_{8}$ in the previous exercise. The lone difference is that for the last marble we want it to be blue. There are 65 marbles, 35 of which are blue.

$P_{2} = \frac{2}{5}*\frac{25}{55}*\frac{1}{2}*\frac{35}{65} = \frac{875}{17875} = 0.0490$