Is it correct to say that constant speed = 0 acceleration = no resultant force?

Physics

1 answer:

stepan [7]4 years ago

8 0

Nope......... Constant speed but change in direction can cause acceleration which would give a finite force........

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Particle q₁ has a charge of 2.7 μC and a velocity of 773 m/s. If it experiences a magnetic force of 5.75 × 10⁻³ N, what is the s

Ne4ueva [31]

The intensity of the magnetic force F experienced by a charge q moving with speed v in a magnetic field of intensity B is equal to
$F=qvB \sin \theta$
where $\theta$ is the angle between the directions of v and B.

1) Re-arranging the previous formula, we can calculate the value of the magnetic field intensity. The charge is $q=2.7 \mu C=2.7 \cdot 10^{-6}C$ . In this case, v and B are perpendicular, so $\theta=90^{\circ}$ , therefore we have:
$B= \frac{F}{qv \sin \theta} = \frac{5.75 \cdot 10^{-3}N}{(2.7 \cdot 10^{-6}C)(773m/s)\sin 90^{\circ}}=2.8 T$

2) In this second case, the angle between v and B is $\theta=55^{\circ}$ . The charge is now $q=42.0 \mu C=42.0 \cdot 10^{-6}C$ , and the magnetic field is the one we found in the previous part, B=2.8 T, so we can find the intensity of the force experienced by this second charge:
$F=qvB \sin \theta=(42\cdot 10^{-6}C)(1.21 \cdot 10^3 m/s)(2.8 T)(\sin 55^{\circ})=0.12 N$