Answer:
The correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.
Explanation:
A triangular arbitrage can be described as the act of taking advantage of a foreign exchange market arbitrage opportunity created by a pricing difference between three different currencies.
A triangle arbitrage method entails three deals, with the first currency being converted to a second, the second currency being converted to a third, and the third currency being converted to the first.
In the question, USD is the first currency, GBP is the second currency, and CHF is the third currency. Based on the explanation above, the three steps which will create triangular arbitrage profit are as follows: first step, convert <u>USD to GBP</u>; second step, convert <u>GBP to CHF</u>, and third step, convert <u>CHF to USD</u>.
Therefore, the correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.
The correct answer is false.
Hope that helped you! c:
1. The Accelerator Theory of Investment 2. The Internal Funds Theory of Investment 3. The Neoclassical Theory of Investment.
those are the answers you are looking for
Answer:
0.25
Explanation:
The marginal rate of technical substitution (MRTS) can be described as the rate of a reduction is one factor to maintain the same production level when another factor is increased.
Given that labor is measured on the horizontal axis, the MRST of K for L can be calculated as follows:
Where;
MPK = Marginal product of capital = 2
MPL = Marginal product of labor = 8
Substituting the values into the equation, we have:
This implies that 0.25 of capital must be given up to have one unit of labor.
The answer to this question is that the contract is voidable. A voidable contract specificallt means that the contract can still be implemented or affirmed or rejected by one of the parties due to valid reasons. A situation where in a contract can be voidable is when the other party is not in the capacity to enter into a contract.
