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Neporo4naja [7]
3 years ago
5

Without fluid friction, all objects accelerate at?

Physics
1 answer:
lys-0071 [83]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Acceleration of gravity=9.8m/s/s

Explanation:

Newton's Second Law-acceleration is proportional to the net force acting on an object.

All objects usually free fall at the same acceleration of 9.8m/s/s-this regardless of their mass. This acceleration is known as acceleration of gravity.

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Carpet can keep a room quiet by:
taurus [48]
Hard surfaces reflect sound back into the room, while carpets help to absorb the sound so it reflects less
6 0
3 years ago
Two transverse waves travel along the same taut string. Wave 1 is described by y1(x, t) = A sin(kx - ωt), while wave 2 is descri
Vadim26 [7]

Answer:

6) Wave 1 travels in the positive x-direction, while wave 2 travels in the negative x-direction.

Explanation:

What matters is the part kx \pm \omega t, the other parts of the equation don't affect time and space variations. We know that when the sign is - the wave propagates to the positive direction while when the sign is + the wave propagates to the negative direction, but <em>here is an explanation</em> of this:

For both cases, + and -, after a certain time \delta t (\delta t >0), the displacement <em>y</em> of the wave will be determined by the kx\pm\omega (t+\delta t) term. For simplicity, if we imagine we are looking at the origin (x=0), this will be simply \pm \omega (t+\delta t).

To know which side, right or left of the origin, would go through the origin after a time \delta t (and thus know the direction of propagation) we have to see how we can achieve that same displacement <em>y</em> not by a time variation but by a space variation \delta x (we would be looking where in space is what we would have in the future in time). The term would be then k(x+\delta x)\pm\omega t, which at the origin is k \delta x \pm \omega t. This would mean that, when the original equation has kx+\omega t, we must have that \delta x>0 for k\delta x+\omega t to be equal to kx+\omega\delta t, and when the original equation has kx-\omega t, we must have that \delta x for k\delta x-\omega t to be equal to kx-\omega \delta t

<em>Note that their values don't matter, although they are a very small variation (we have to be careful since all this is inside a sin function), what matters is if they are positive or negative and as such what is possible or not .</em>

<em />

In conclusion, when kx+\omega t, the part of the wave on the positive side (\delta x>0) is the one that will go through the origin, so the wave is going in the negative direction, and viceversa.

4 0
3 years ago
The metal ions in iron are held together by
Sidana [21]
Metals are giant structures of atoms held together by metallic bonds. “Giant” implies that large but variable numbers of Atoms are involved - depending on the size of the bits of metal. most metals are close packed - that is, they fit as many items as possible into the available volume.
5 0
4 years ago
A wave pulse travels down a slinky. The mass of the slinky is m = 0.87 kg and is initially stretched to a length L = 6.8 m. The
Ber [7]

Answer:

1. v=14.2259\ m.s^{-1}

2. F_T=25.8924\ N

3. \lambda=29.6373\ m

Explanation:

Given:

  • mass of slinky, m=0.87\ kg
  • length of slinky, L=6.8\ m
  • amplitude of wave pulse, A=0.23\ m
  • time taken by the wave pulse to travel down the length, t=0.478\ s
  • frequency of wave pulse, f=0.48\ Hz=0.48\ s^{-1}

1.

\rm Speed\ of\ wave\ pulse=Length\ of\ slinky\div time\ taken\ by\ the\ wave\ to\ travel

v=\frac{6.8}{0.478}

v=14.2259\ m.s^{-1}

2.

<em>Now, we find the linear mass density of the slinky.</em>

\mu=\frac{m}{L}

\mu=\frac{0.87}{6.8}\ kg.m^{-1}

We have the relation involving the tension force as:

v=\sqrt{\frac{F_T}{\mu} }

14.2259=\sqrt{\frac{F_T}{\frac{0.87}{6.8}} }

202.3774=F_T\times \frac{6.8}{0.87}

F_T=25.8924\ N

3.

We have the relation for wavelength as:

\lambda=\frac{v}{f}

\lambda=\frac{14.2259}{0.48}

\lambda=29.6373\ m

8 0
3 years ago
The time period T of a simple pendulum is given by the relation
Vanyuwa [196]

Answer:

T^2 \propto L

Explanation:

The period of a simple pendulum is given by:

T=2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}

where

L is the length of the pendulum

g is the acceleration of gravity

From this equation we can write

T\propto \sqrt{L}\\T\propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{g}}

Taking the square of this equation, we get:

T^2 = (2\pi)^2 \frac{L}{g}

So we see that T^2 is proportional to L and inversely proportional to g. So, we can write:

T^2 \propto L\\T^2 \propto \frac{1}{g}

So the only correct option is

T^2 \propto L

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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