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3 years ago

5

Any clue on this one please help

2 answers:

barxatty [35]3 years ago

8 0

Yes, because they both have the same slope, and a translation doesn't have an affect of the slope. Both slopes are 1, because they are going +1x and +1y, or 1/1 which = 1.

uysha [10]3 years ago

3 0

A because they are parralell and the slope is one and even though it is the translation or opposite it stays parallel because the opposite or translation doesn’t change direction

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$\huge{\green {\sf \underline{Answer:}}}$

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