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rodikova [14]
3 years ago
5

Any clue on this one please help

Mathematics
2 answers:
barxatty [35]3 years ago
8 0

Yes, because they both have the same slope, and a translation doesn't have an affect of the slope. Both slopes are 1, because they are going +1x and +1y, or 1/1 which = 1.

uysha [10]3 years ago
3 0
A because they are parralell and the slope is one and even though it is the translation or opposite it stays parallel because the opposite or translation doesn’t change direction
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