What terms are needed to completely describe velocity?

A buoy is a floating device that can have many purposes, but often as a locator for ships. Collin constructs a hollow metal buoy

Yuri [45]

Answer:

A) since the density of the buoy is half the density of sea water when the buoy is at rest on an ocean half of the buoy will be submerged in water

B )angular frequency ( w ) = $\sqrt{\frac{3g}{h} }$

c ) h = 1.34 m ( 4 $\pi ^{2}$ / 3g )

Explanation:

A) since the density of the buoy is half the density of sea water when the buoy is at rest on an ocean half of the buoy will be submerged in water this is because the substances with lesser density floats when placed in a substance with a higher density

B ) when the Buoy is at rest ( t = 0 ) and is then pushed down calculate angular frequency ( w ) of small oscillations in terms of the given variables

volume of cone = hA /3.

h = height of cone, A = Base Area.

therefore the total volume of the Buoy above water level ( at rest )

= ( $\pi r^{2} * \frac{h}{3}$ ) * 2 = $\frac{\pi r^{2} h }{6}$

The part of the buoy immersed in water = x

then the net upward force will be

fb ( force of Buoy ) = fg ( force of gravity )

note force = Mass * Acceleration

force of buoy = $\frac{\alpha }{2} *$ $\frac{\pi r^{2} }{h}$ * a = ( force of gravity ) $\alpha * T\frac{r^{2} }{4} * x * g$

therefore a = $\frac{3g}{h} * x$

angular frequency ( w ) = $\sqrt{\frac{3g}{h} }$

C ) height of the each cone

$\frac{2\pi }{w} = 1$ therefore w = 2 $\pi$

back to the angular frequency : $\frac{3g}{h} = 4\pi ^{2}$

therefore h = 1.34 m ( 4 $\pi ^{2}$ / 3g )

4 0

3 years ago

The balance Lenght of a potent ometer wire for a Cell of emf 1.62v is 90cm. if the Cell is replaced by another one of emf 1.08v.

andrew-mc [135]

Answer:

answer is 3.05v

Explanation:

hope it is helpful and briliant

6 0

2 years ago

Two particles oscillate in simple harmonic motion along a common straight-line segment of length 1.0 m. Each particle has a peri

igor_vitrenko [27]

Answer:

a) the particles are 0.217 m apart

b) the particles are moving in the same direction.

Explanation:

a) The amplitude of the oscillations is A/2 and the period of each particle is

T = 1.5 s however, they differ by a phase of π/6 rad. Let the phase of the first particle be zero so that the phase of the second particle is π/6. So we can write the coordinates of each of the particles as,

x₁ = A/2 cos(ωt)

x₂ = A/2 cos(ωt + π/6)

we can write the angular frequency ω, as

ω = 2π / T

so,

x₁ = A/2 cos(2π / T)

x₂ = A/2 cos(2π / T + π/6)

Thus, the coordinates of the particles at t = 0.45 s are,

x₁ = A/2 cos((2π × 0.45) / 1.5)) = -0.155 A

x₂ = A/2 cos((2π × 0.45) / 1.5) + π/6) = -0.372 A

Their separation at that time is, therefore,

Δx = x₁ - x₂

= -0.155 A + 0.372 A

= 0.217 A

since A = 1 m

Thus,

Δx = 0.217 m

b) In order to find their directions, we must take the derivatives at t = 0.45 s.

Therefore,

v₁ = dx₁ / dt

= (-πA / T) sin(2πt / T)

= -(π(1) / 1.5) sin(2π(0.45) / 1.5)

= -1.99

and,

v₂ = dx₂ / dt

= (-πA / T) sin((2πt / T) + π/6)

= -(π(1) / 1.5) sin((2π(0.45) / 1.5) + π/6)

= -1.40

Since both v₁ and v₂ are negative, this shows that the particles are moving in the same direction.

6 0

3 years ago

A conveyer belt moves a 40 kg box at a velocity of 2 m/s. What is the kinetic energy of the box while it is on the conveyor belt

ankoles [38]

Kinwtic energy = (40kg*2*2)/2=40*2=80J

4 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

If anyone knows how to do any of these PLEASE help me....im am so confused rn and our teacher sucks at explaining this stuff....

Taya2010 [7]

Take 68.2/60 = 1.137 hr
take 56.9/1.137 = 50.043 mi/hr

take 189/211 = 0.896

24.8/2 = 12.4 m
12.4/82.3 = 0.15s

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers