In order to solve this, all you have to do is divide 35 by 1.4 (because you need to move the decimal places over to the left two places when changing from a percentage to a decimal.) When you do that, you get 25, so 35 is 140% of 25. I hope this helps! :)
<span><span>You draw a queen on the first draw and one on the second<span><span><span>4/52 </span>∗ <span>3/51 </span>= <span>12/2652 </span>= <span>1/22 </span></span></span></span><span>
You draw something other than a queen on the first draw and a queen on the second<span><span><span>
48/52 </span>∗ <span>4/51 </span>= <span>192/2652</span>=<span>16/221</span></span></span></span></span>
So in total, the chance is:
<span><span><span>1/221 </span>+ <span>16/221 </span>= <span>17/221</span>=
<span>4/52</span></span></span>
Answer:
If ƒ(x ) = 3x + 1, then ƒ(a + h ) - ƒ(a ) = 3h
Step-by-step explanation:
Given ƒ(x ) = 3x + 1, then to calculate ƒ(a + h ) - ƒ(a ), you need to replace "x" for (a + h) and a, respectively.
So...
f(a +h) = 3(a + h) + 1
and
f(a) = 3a + 1
Then
ƒ(a + h ) - ƒ(a ) = 3 (a + h) + 1 - [3a +1] = 3a + 3h + 1 - 3a - 1 = 3h.
So, ƒ(a + h ) - ƒ(a ) = 3h
Answer:
The answer is 6,992 :)
Step-by-step explanation:
