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Veseljchak [2.6K]
3 years ago
14

If p is a positive integer,then p(p+1)(p-1) is always divisible by?

Mathematics
1 answer:
ElenaW [278]3 years ago
4 0

I am not quite sure what the choices are, but the answer to that problem is:

If p is a positive integer, then p(p+1)(p-1) is always divisible by “an even number”.

The explanation to this is that whatever number you input to that equation, the answer will always be an even number. This is due to the expression p(p+1)(p-1) which always result in a even product.

For example if p=3, then (p+1)(p-1) becomes (4)(2) giving you a even number.

And if for example if p=2, then (p+1)(p-1) becomes (3)(1) which gives an odd product, but we still have to multiply this with p therefore 2*3 = 6 which is even product. The outcome is always even number.

<span>Answer: From the choices, select the even number</span>

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

We need to subtract the given polynomial from the sum:-

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Bringing like terms together:

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- 1

Simplifying like terms

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3 years ago
What is the value of x to the nearest degree?<br><br> 48 <br> 42 <br> 84 <br> 24
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Answer:

The value of the angle x is 48°.

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Keith_Richards [23]
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e) not enough information to answer the question

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You can see a picture of this case in the figure attached: as you can see the cross section (in pink) is a triangle.

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