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Veseljchak [2.6K]
3 years ago
14

If p is a positive integer,then p(p+1)(p-1) is always divisible by?

Mathematics
1 answer:
ElenaW [278]3 years ago
4 0

I am not quite sure what the choices are, but the answer to that problem is:

If p is a positive integer, then p(p+1)(p-1) is always divisible by “an even number”.

The explanation to this is that whatever number you input to that equation, the answer will always be an even number. This is due to the expression p(p+1)(p-1) which always result in a even product.

For example if p=3, then (p+1)(p-1) becomes (4)(2) giving you a even number.

And if for example if p=2, then (p+1)(p-1) becomes (3)(1) which gives an odd product, but we still have to multiply this with p therefore 2*3 = 6 which is even product. The outcome is always even number.

<span>Answer: From the choices, select the even number</span>

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