Answer:The value of R at atm that is at standard atmospheric pressure is R = 8.3144598 J. mol-1. K-1.
Step-by-step explanation:i got this from someone
Complementary angles, sum = 90
So 3y - 4 + 73 = 90
3y + 69 = 90
3y = 21
y = 7
Answer
y = 7
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Remark
Simple answer: you can't. I mean that you can't try to use 4 numbers, but you can solve the problem. You are going to have to redraw the diagram on another sheet of paper. Follow the directions below.
Directions for diagram extension.
Go to the right hand end of the 10 unit line.
Draw a line from the intersection point of the 10 unit line and 12 unit line
Draw this line so it is perpendicular to the 18 unit line. That will mean that the new line is parallel (and equal) to x
Mark the intersect point of the new line and the 18 unit line as B
Mark the intersect point of the 18 point line and the 12 unit line as C
Given and constructed
BC = 18 - 10 = 8
BC is one leg of the Pythagorean triangle.
The new x is the other leg of the Pythagorean triangle.
12 is the hypotenuse.
Formula
x^2 + 8^2 = 12^2
x refers to the new x which is equal to the given x
Solution
x^2 + 64 = 144 Subtract 64 from both sides
x^2 +64 - 64 = 144-64 Combine
x^2 = 80 Break 80 down.
x^2 = 4 * 4 * 5 Take the square root of both sides
x = 4*sqrt(5)
Comment
If you want the area it is 4*sqrt(5)(10 + 18)/2 = 56*sqrt(5)
The preferred gig is the first one since its today's worth is greater than the today's value of the second gig
What is the today's worth of $5000 each year?
The worth of the second gig, which pays $5000 every year for the next 6 years in today's dollar is the present value of all the six annual cash flows discounted using the present value formula of an ordinary annuity as shown below:
PV=PMT*(1-(1+r)^-N/r
PV=present value of annual payments for 6 years=unknown
PMT=annual payment=$5000
r=required return=discount rate=8%
N=number of annual cash flows=6
PV=$5000*(1-(1+8%)^-6/8%
PV=$5000*(1-(1.08)^-6/0.08
PV=$5000*(1-0.630169626883105)/0.08
PV=$5000*0.369830373116895
/0.08
PV=$23,114.40
The fact that the present value of the second option which pays $5000 annually is lesser than the amount receivable immediately, which is $25,000, hence, the first gig is preferred
Find out more about ordinary annuity on:brainly.com/question/13369387
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<span> x = 10/7. Hope this helped
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