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Tems11 [23]
3 years ago
5

How many times bigger is a metric ton than a kilogram?

Mathematics
1 answer:
kiruha [24]3 years ago
5 0
The unit ton, or metric ton, is a non-SI unit but commonly used in the United States. It is both approved by the NIST and the U.S National Institute of Standards and Technology. The equivalence is, 1 metric ton is equal to 1,000 kilograms. So, a metric ton is a thousand times bigger than a kilogram.
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The following data set shows the times a product failed in a series of tests. What is the range of this data set? {16, 12, 19, 1
Alika [10]

Answer:

9

Step-by-step explanation:

Highest number is 19 lowest is 10. 19-10 is 9.

7 0
3 years ago
Let Y1, Y2, . . . , Yn be independent, uniformly distributed random variables over the interval [0, θ]. Let Y(n) = max{Y1, Y2, .
Anettt [7]

Answer:

a) F(y) = 0, y

F(y) = \frac{y}{\theta} , 0 \leq y \leq \theta

F(y)= 1, y>1

b) f_{Y_{(n)}} = \frac{d}{dy} (\frac{y}{\theta})^n = n \frac{y^{n-1}}{\theta^n}, 0 \leq y \leq \theta

f_{Y_{(n)}} =0 for other case

c) E(Y_{(n)}) = \frac{n}{\theta^n} \frac{\theta^{n+1}}{n+1}= \theta [\frac{n}{n+1}]

Var(Y_{(n)}) =\theta^2 [\frac{n}{(n+1)(n+2)}]

Step-by-step explanation:

We have a sample of Y_1, Y_2,...,Y_n iid uniform on the interval [0,\theta] and we want to find the cumulative distribution function.

Part a

For this case we can define the CDF for Y_i , i =1,2.,,,n like this:

F(y) = 0, y

F(y) = \frac{y}{\theta} , 0 \leq y \leq \theta

F(y)= 1, y>1

Part b

For this case we know that:

F_{Y_{(n)}} (y) = P(Y_{(n)} \leq y) = P(Y_1 \leq y,....,Y_n \leq y)

And since are independent we have:

F_{Y_{(n)}} (y) = P(Y_1 \leq y) * ....P(Y_n \leq y) = (\frac{y}{\theta})^n

And then we can find the density function calculating the derivate from the last expression and we got:

f_{Y_{(n)}} = \frac{d}{dy} (\frac{y}{\theta})^n = n \frac{y^{n-1}}{\theta^n}, 0 \leq y \leq \theta

f_{Y_{(n)}} =0 for other case

Part c

For this case we can find the mean with the following integral:

E(Y_{(n)}) = \frac{n}{\theta^n} \int_{0}^{\theta} y y^{n-1} dy

E(Y_{(n)}) = \frac{n}{\theta^n} \int_{0}^{\theta} y^n dy

E(Y_{(n)}) = \frac{n}{\theta^n} \frac{y^{n+1}}{n+1} \Big|_0^{\theta}

And after evaluate we got:

E(Y_{(n)}) = \frac{n}{\theta^n} \frac{\theta^{n+1}}{n+1}= \theta [\frac{n}{n+1}]

For the variance first we need to find the second moment like this:

E(Y^2_{(n)}) = \frac{n}{\theta^n} \int_{0}^{\theta} y^2 y^{n-1} dy

E(Y^2_{(n)}) = \frac{n}{\theta^n} \int_{0}^{\theta} y^{n+1} dy

E(Y^2_{(n)}) = \frac{n}{\theta^n} \frac{y^{n+2}}{n+2} \Big|_0^{\theta}

And after evaluate we got:

E(Y^2_{(n)}) = \frac{n}{\theta^n} \frac{\theta^{n+2}}{n+2}= \theta^2 [\frac{n}{n+2}]

And the variance is given by:

Var(Y_{(n)}) = E(Y^2_{(n)}) - [E(Y_{(n)})]^2

And if we replace we got:

Var(Y_{(n)}) =\theta^2 [\frac{n}{n+2}] -\theta^2 [\frac{n}{n+1}]^2

Var(Y_{(n)}) =\theta^2 [\frac{n}{n+2} -(\frac{n}{n+1})^2]

And after do some algebra we got:

Var(Y_{(n)}) =\theta^2 [\frac{n}{(n+1)(n+2)}]

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3 years ago
Help me please,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,,
hichkok12 [17]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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This is because the y value of 1 repeats itself, which never happens in an exponential function. This function is likely quadratic, which forms a parabola.
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