Answer:
1017.88
Step-by-step explanation:
i used the formula of V=πr2h
3 a for the cone and then also 4
3πr3 for the sphere
plzmark branliest
Answer:
A. Yes, the result is a binomial probability distribution.
Step-by-step explanation:
The experiment above depicts a binomial probability distribution because the 4 required conditions are met :
1.) The distribution is independent as the possible outcome of each trial is the same.
2.) There are two possible categories and the result of each trial is one of two outcomes : Yes or No
3.) The number of observation is fixed at sample size of 5500
4.) The probability of success and failure of each trial is the same for all trials in the sample.
Hence, we can conclude that the experiment depicts a binomial probability distribution.
Answer:
8) 10 m 9) 26 in 10) 51 m 11) 50 ft 12) 19.4 cm 13) 177.9 m 14) 40 15) 12 16) 14.7 17) 12.1
Step-by-step explanation:
You may solve the problems by using the Pythagorean Theorem which states that c^2 = a^2 + b^2, or in other words, the hypotenuse squared is equal to the sum of the legs squared.
Hope this helps! :-)
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation
Take the square root of both sides.
Add both sides by 5
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
we know that
The simple interest formula is equal to
where
I is the Interest Value
P is the Principal amount of money to be invested
r is the rate of interest
t is Number of Time Periods
in this problem we have
substitute in the formula above
