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Murrr4er [49]
3 years ago
10

The temperature of a chemical reaction ranges between 20 degrees Celsius and 160 degrees Celsius. The temperature is at its lowe

st point when t = 0, and the reaction completes 1 cycle during an 8-hour period. What is a cosine function that models this reaction?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Crank3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The cosine function that models this reaction is:

y=-70cos(\frac{1}{4}\pi x) +90

Step-by-step explanation:

The general cosine function has the following form

y = Acos(bx) + k

Where A is the amplitude: half the vertical distance between the highest peak and the lowest peak of the wave.

\frac{2\pi}{b} is the period: time it takes the wave to complete a cycle.

k is the vertical displacement.

The maximum temperature is 160 and the minimum is 20. Then the amplitude A is:

A =\frac{160-20}{2}\\\\A= 70

The reaction completes a cycle in 8 hours

Then the period is 8 hours.

Thus:

\frac{2\pi}{b}=8\\\\ b=\frac{2\pi}{8}\\\\ b=\frac{1}{4}\pi

The function is:

y = 70cos(\frac{1}{4}\pi x)+k

when t=0 y is minumum therefore y=-cos(x)

So

y = -70cos(\frac{1}{4}\pi x)+k

Now we substitute t = 0 in the function and solve for k

20 = -70cos(0)+k\\\\k=20+70\\\\k=90

Finally

y=-70cos(\frac{1}{4}\pi x) +90

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About 11% of adult Americans are left-handed. Suppose that two people are randomly selected from this
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Answer:

a) P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.11)^0 (1-0.11)^{2-0}=0.7921  

P(X=1)=(2C1)(0.11)^1 (1-0.11)^{2-1}=0.1958  

P(X=2)=(2C2)(0.11)^2 (1-0.11)^{2-2}=0.0121  

And then we have our probability distribution like this:

X     |       0    |      1     |     2    |

P(X) |  0.7921 | 0.1958 | 0.0121|

b) P(X \geq 1) = P(X=1)+P(X=2) = 0.1958+0.0121=0.2079

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.48)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Solution for the problem

Part a

On this case since we select a sample size of n =2 we have the following values for the number of left handed X=0,1,2. We can find the probabilities for each case since we know that p=0.11.

P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.11)^0 (1-0.11)^{2-0}=0.7921  

P(X=1)=(2C1)(0.11)^1 (1-0.11)^{2-1}=0.1958  

P(X=2)=(2C2)(0.11)^2 (1-0.11)^{2-2}=0.0121  

And then we have our probability distribution like this:

X     |       0    |      1     |     2    |

P(X) |  0.7921 | 0.1958 | 0.0121|

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1) = P(X=1)+P(X=2) = 0.1958+0.0121=0.2079

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