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Luden [163]
3 years ago
6

A soccer ball is kicked straight upwards with an initial vertical speed of 8.0 m/s. We can ignore air resistance. How long does

it take the ball to have a downwards speed of 4.0 m/s?
Physics
1 answer:
Lana71 [14]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The time the ball it takes to have the downward speed 4 m/s is 1.22 sec.

Explanation:

Lets explain the motion of the ball

The ball is kicked straight upwards with an initial vertical speed of 8.0 m/s

Its velocity decreases util it reaches the maximum height

At the maximum height its velocity is equal to zero

Then it fall down to the ground

We can ignore air resistance

Lets find the time it takes the ball to reach the maximum height

The acceleration of gravity is -9.8 m/s²

The initial velocity is 8 m/s upward

The final velocity is zero

So lets use the rule v = u + gt, where v is the final velocity, u is the initial

velocity, g is the acceleration of gravity and t is the time

u = 8 , v = 0 , g = -9.8

Substitute these value in the equation above

0 = 8 - 9.8 t

Add 9.8 t for both sides

9.8 t = 8

Divide both sides by 9.8

t = 40/49 seconds

The ball falls withe initial velocity zero and increases to reach 4 m/s

The velocity 4 m/s is downward

The acceleration of gravity is 9.8 m/s²

By using the same rule

u = 0 , v = 4 , g = 9.8

4 = 0 + 9.8 t

4 = 9.8 t

Divide both sides by 9.8

t = 20/49

The time the ball it takes to have the downward speed 4 m/s is the sum

of the two times above

The time the ball it takes = \frac{40}{49}+\frac{20}{49}=\frac{60}{49}=1.22 seconds

<em>The time the ball it takes to have the downward speed 4 m/s is 1.22 sec.</em>

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A diffraction grating with 600 lines/mmlines/mm is illuminated with light of wavelength 510 nmnm. A very wide viewing screen is
Ksenya-84 [330]

Answer:

A.2.95 m

B.7

Explanation:

We are given that

Diffraction grating=600 lines/mm

d=\frac{1 mm}{600}=\frac{1\times 10^{-3} m}{600}=1.67\times 10^{-6} m

Wavelength of light,\lambda=510 nm=510\times 10^{-9} m

l=4.6 m

A.We have to find the distance between the two m=1 bright fringes

sin\theta=\frac{m\lambda}{d}

For first bright fringe, =1

sin\theta=\frac{1\times 510\times 10^{-9}}{1.67\times 10^{-6}}=0.305

\theta=sin^{-1}(0.305)=17.76^{\circ}

The distance between two m=1 fringes

x=2ltan\theta=2\times 4.6 tan(17.76^{\circ})=2.95 m

Hence, the distance between two m=1 fringes=2.95 m

B.For maximum number of fringes,

sin\theta=1

sin\theta=\frac{m\lambda}{d}

Substitute the values

1=\frac{m\times 510\times 10^{-9}}{1.67\times 10^{-6}}

m=\frac{1.67\times 10^{-6}}{510\times 10^{-9}}=3.3\approx 3

Maximum number of bright fringes on the scree=2m+1=2(3)+1=7

8 0
4 years ago
Why do you lurch forward in a bus that suddenly slows? why do you lurch backward when it picks up speed? what law applies here?
AveGali [126]
The law applied here is Newton's first law, also known as, law of inertia.
This law states that: A body will retain its state of rest or motion unless acted upon by an external force.

If you are moving and the bus suddenly stops, your body will lurch forward trying to retain its state of motion until it comes to rest and changes its state by the external force acted on it.

If you are at rest and the bus suddenly moves, your body will lurch backwards trying to retain its state of rest and opposing the force of motion until it is forced to change its state by this force.
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Which process allows green plants to control the amount of water stored in their leaves
OleMash [197]
Transpiration is the what the process is called.
It controls the release of water through the stomata.
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4 years ago
What transfer of energy is occurring between magnetism and electricity
ioda
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4 years ago
PLEASE HELP MEE THIS IS DUE IN 45 MINS
guajiro [1.7K]

Answer:

The distance travelled does not depend on the mass of the vehicle. Therefore, s = d

Explanation:

This deceleration situation can be analyzed by means of Work-Energy Theorem, where change in translational kinetic energy is equal to the work done by friction:

\frac{1}{2}\cdot m\cdot v^{2}-\mu\cdot m\cdot g \cdot s = 0 (1)

Where:

m - Mass of the car, in kilogram.

v - Initial velocity, in meters per second.

\mu - Coefficient of friction, no unit.

s - Travelled distance, in meters.

Then we derive an expression for the distance travelled by the vehicle:

\frac{1}{2}\cdot v^{2} = \mu \cdot g \cdot s

s = \frac{v^{2}}{\mu\cdot g}

As we notice, the distance travelled does not depend on the mass of the vehicle. Therefore, s = d

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