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Ksenya-84 [330]
3 years ago
15

A stuntwoman is going to attempt a jump across a canyon that is 77 m wide. The ramp on the far side of the canyon is 25 m lower

than the ramp from which she will leave. The takeoff ramp is built with a 15º angle from horizontal. If the stuntwoman leaves the ramp with a velocity of 28 m/s, will she make the jump? Why?
Physics
1 answer:
liq [111]3 years ago
5 0

initial speed of the stuntman is given as

v = 28 m/s

angle of inclination is given as

\theta = 15 degree

now the components of the velocity is given as

v_x = 28 cos15 = 27.04 m/s

v_y = 28 sin15 = 7.25 m/s

here it is given that the ramp on the far side of the canyon is 25 m lower than the ramp from which she will leave.

So the displacement in vertical direction is given as

\delta y = -25 m

\delta y = v_y * t + \frac{1}{2} at^2

-25 = 7.25 * t - \frac{1}{2}*9.8* t^2

by solving above equation we have

t = 3.12 s

Now in the above interval of time the horizontal distance moved by it is given by

d_x = v_x * t

d_x = 27.04 * 3.12 = 84.4 m

since the canyon width is 77 m which is less than the horizontal distance covered by the stuntman so here we can say that stuntman will cross the canyon.

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A) v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}

B) r=\frac{mv}{qB}

C) T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

D) \omega=\frac{qB}{m}

E) r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}

Explanation:

A)

When the particle is accelerated by a potential difference V, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy of the particle is given by:

\Delta U = qV

where

q is the charge of the particle (positive)

On the other hand, the change (increase) in the kinetic energy of the particle is (assuming it starts from rest):

\Delta K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

where

m is the mass of the particle

v is its final speed

According to the law of conservation of energy, the change (decrease) in electric potential energy is equal to the increase in kinetic energy, so:

qV=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

And solving for v, we find the speed v at which the particle enters the cyclotron:

v=\sqrt{\frac{2qV}{m}}

B)

When the particle enters the region of magnetic field in the cyclotron, the magnetic force acting on the particle (acting perpendicular to the motion of the particle) is

F=qvB

where B is the strength of the magnetic field.

This force acts as centripetal force, so we can write:

F=m\frac{v^2}{r}

where r is the radius of the orbit.

Since the two forces are equal, we can equate them:

qvB=m\frac{v^2}{r}

And solving for r, we find the radius of the orbit:

r=\frac{mv}{qB} (1)

C)

The period of revolution of a particle in circular motion is the time taken by the particle to complete one revolution.

It can be calculated as the ratio between the length of the circumference (2\pi r) and the velocity of the particle (v):

T=\frac{2\pi r}{v} (2)

From eq.(1), we can rewrite the velocity of the particle as

v=\frac{qBr}{m}

Substituting into(2), we can rewrite the period of revolution of the particle as:

T=\frac{2\pi r}{(\frac{qBr}{m})}=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

And we see that this period is indepedent on the velocity.

D)

The angular frequency of a particle in circular motion is related to the period by the formula

\omega=\frac{2\pi}{T} (3)

where T is the period.

The period has been found in part C:

T=\frac{2\pi m}{qB}

Therefore, substituting into (3), we find an expression for the angular frequency of motion:

\omega=\frac{2\pi}{(\frac{2\pi m}{qB})}=\frac{qB}{m}

And we see that also the angular frequency does not depend on the velocity.

E)

For this part, we use again the relationship found in part B:

v=\frac{qBr}{m}

which can be rewritten as

r=\frac{mv}{qB} (4)

The kinetic energy of the particle is written as

K=\frac{1}{2}mv^2

So, from this we can find another expression for the velocity:

v=\sqrt{\frac{2K}{m}}

And substitutin into (4), we find:

r=\frac{\sqrt{2mK}}{qB}

So, this is the radius of the cyclotron that we must have in order to accelerate the particles at a kinetic energy of K.

Note that for a cyclotron, the acceleration of the particles is achevied in the gap between the dees, where an electric field is applied (in fact, the magnetic field does zero work on the particle, so it does not provide acceleration).

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Puck B has twice the mass of puck A. Starting from rest, both pucks are pulled the same distance across frictionless ice by stri
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Answer:

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Explanation:

Let the mass of puck A is m and the mass of puck B is 2 m.

initial speed for both the pucks is same as u and the distance is same for both is s.

let the tension is T for same.

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