Answer:
Commits the fed to set a particular money supply so that it hits the announced target
Explanation:
The target rate and money supply need to be alligned for the FED to achieve its goals.
The participants were tested according to the number of days they Mandarin every 20 minutes. It's been testing which would be the best model to study a foreign language. This is an experimental study of identifying the most effective method based on the experiments.
Answer:
3.15 times
Explanation:
Asset turnover = Sales revenue / Average total assets
Asset turnover = $1,135,420 / $360,600
Asset turnover = 3.15 times
Answer:
The answer is: Obligation that has a distant due date exceeding company's operating cycle.
Explanation:
A current liability is a financial obligation due within one year (or one normal operation cycle).
So a financial obligation that has a due date that exceeds a company´s operating cycle should have been directly classified as a long term liability (or a non current liability) in the first place. It simply is not a current liability that is changed into a long term liability, it always was a long term liability.
The other options represent the steps necessary for turning a current liability into a long term liability.
- Intend to refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.
- Demonstrate the ability to complete the refinancing.
- Subsequently refinance the obligation on a long-term basis.
Answer:
Total after-tax cash flow= $6000
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Equipment value= $30,000 in December 20x1.
Income= $10,000 p
Cost= $2,000 per year.
Depreciation= $3,000.
t=0,40
Cash flow has the following structure:
Income (+)
Cost (-)
Depreciation (-)
=EBIT
TAX (-)
Depreciation (+)
Total
Income= 10000
Costs= -2000
Depreciation= -3000
EBIT= 5000
Tax= -2000
Depreciation= 3000
Total= 6000
