Answer:
If a is 1.. we substitute one in every a in g(a)
4 * 1 + 16
4+ 16 = 20
g(a)= 20
f(20)
-16 + 20 = 4
and 4/4 = 1
so f (g (a)) = a
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:the last box
Step-by-step explanation:the other ones wouldnt make any sense
Answer:
![\vec v = 2\cdot \vec a = \langle -4,6 \rangle](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cvec%20v%20%3D%202%5Ccdot%20%5Cvec%20a%20%3D%20%5Clangle%20-4%2C6%20%5Crangle)
Step-by-step explanation:
Let
, we need to determine
, which can be found by applying the following property:
,
(1)
Then,
![\vec v = 2\cdot \langle -2,3 \rangle](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cvec%20v%20%3D%202%5Ccdot%20%5Clangle%20-2%2C3%20%5Crangle)
![\vec v = \langle -4,6 \rangle](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cvec%20v%20%3D%20%5Clangle%20-4%2C6%20%5Crangle)
X=price of one jumbo popcorn
y=price of one chocolate chip cookies
$5.00=$5.00(100 cts / $)=500 cts
$6.00=$6.00(100 cts / $)=600 cts
We suggest this system of equations:
x+2y=500
x+4y=600
we solve this system of equations by reduction method.
-(x+2y=500)
x+4y=600
----------------------
2y=100 ⇒ y=100/2=50
x+2y=500
x+2(50)=500
x+100=500
x=500-100
x=400
solution: one chocolate chip cookie cost 50 cts.