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Vera_Pavlovna [14]
3 years ago
9

I tried 8 and 1 and this is probably and easy question but can you pls help

Mathematics
1 answer:
Anarel [89]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

perimeter is the outside, so count around the outside for the answer, which is 18

the area is correct though so good job

good luck :)

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Given solve triangle ABC. Round the answer to the nearest hundredth. A. A- 9.590, B8841°, c-11.89 B. A 9.590, B-8841, c 12.17 C.
nikitadnepr [17]
I think the answer is b
3 0
3 years ago
HOW TO PUT 12/15 IN SIMPLEST FORM
mr_godi [17]

Answer:

4/5

Step-by-step explanation:

we divide by 3 the numerator and the denominator:

(12/3) / (15/3)

we have:

4/5

5 0
3 years ago
7.4 Practice
pickupchik [31]

The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability

  • The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
  • The probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
  • The probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two</h3>

From the question,

  • Numbers 1 to 7 represents the medicine being effective
  • 0, 8 and 9 represents the medicine not being effective

From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two

So, the probability is:

p = 23/30

p = 0.767

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on none</h3>

From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none

So, the probability is:

p = 0/30

p = 0

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0

<h3>The probability a bowler hits a headpin</h3>

The probability of hitting a headpin is:

p = 90%

The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:

P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)

So, we have:

P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1

P(4) = 0.3281

Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

Read more about probabilities at:

brainly.com/question/25870256

8 0
2 years ago
Can somebody who knows how to do probability please help answer these questions correctly? Thanks! (Btw the P= probability)
stira [4]

Answer:

P(2): 1/5

P(4): 1/5

P(odd number): 3/5

P(whole number): 5/5

P(6): 0/5

P(2 or 3): 2/5

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 5 <em>equal </em>sections in this circle. So, the probability to land in each section is 1/5.

The odd numbers are 1, 3, and 5. Since each section is 1/5, you add

1/5 + 1/5 + 1/5 = 3/5. That is the probability that you will land in any odd number.

Because all the numbers listed are whole numbers, no matter where the spinner lands it will be a whole number. So, the probability is 5/5 for whole numbers.

Since 6 is not a section, it's probability will be 0/5 (or you can just put 0).

"Or" means you add the two probabilities. Add the probability of landing on 3 (which is 1/5) to the probability of landing on 2 (which is also 1/5). So, you get 2/5.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A player tosses a die 6 times.If gets a number 6 Atleast two times he wins 2 dollars ,otherwise he looses 1 dollar.. Find the ex
swat32

Answer:

E(x)=-0.2101

Step-by-step explanation:

The expected value for a discrete variable is calculated as:

E(x)=x_1*p(x_1)+x_2*p(x_2)

Where x_1 and x_2 are the values that the variable can take and p(x_1) and p(x_2) are their respective probabilities.

So, a player can win 2 dollars or looses 1 dollar, it means that x_1 is equal to 2 and x_2 is equal to -1.

Then, we need to calculated the probability that the player win 2 dollars and the probability that the player loses 1 dollar.

If there are n identical and independent events with a probability p of success and a probability (1-p) of fail, the probability that a events from the n are success are equal to:

P(a)=nCa*p^a*(1-p)^{n-a}

Where nCa=\frac{n!}{a!(n-a)!}

So, in this case, n is number of times that the player tosses a die and p is the probability to get a 6. n is equal to 6 and p is equal to 1/6.

Therefore, the probability  p(x_1) that a player get at least two times number 6, is calculated as:

p(x_1)=P(x\geq2)=1-P(0)-P(1) \\\\P(0) =6C0*(1/6)^{0}*(5/6)^{6}=0.3349\\P(1)=6C1*(1/6)^{1}*(5/6)^{5}=0.4018\\\\p(x_1)=1-0.3349-0.4018\\p(x_1)=0.2633

On the other hand, the probability p(x_2) that a player don't get  at least two times number 6, is calculated as:

p(x_2)=1-p(x_1)=1-0.2633=0.7367

Finally, the expected value of the amount that the player wins is:

E(x)=x_1*p(x_1)+x_2*p(x_2)\\E(x)=2*(0.2633)+ (-1)*0.7367\\E(x)=-0.2101

It means that he can expect to loses 0.2101 dollars.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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