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Troyanec [42]
3 years ago
5

A horse ran at a constant speed for 4 hours. Then, it decreased its speed by 7 mph for the

Physics
1 answer:
algol133 years ago
6 0

Distance travelled in 4 hours...

730 - 442 = 288 miles

Speed for the 4 hours;

Speed = 288/4 = 72 miles/hour

Speed for the rest of 442 miles...;

(72 - 7) = 65 miles/hour

Time taken for 442 miles..

Time taken = Distance/Speed

; 442/65 = 6.8

Time taken = 6.8 hours

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I throw a thin uniform circular disc (think of a frisbee) into the air so that it spins with angular velocity ω about an axis wh
Ad libitum [116K]

Answer:

| w | = w√ ( sin^2 ∝ + cos^2∝ ) shows that w is independent of time hence it is constant

Explanation:

prove that the magnitude of <em>w</em> is constant

attached below is a detailed solution of the question

5 0
3 years ago
Technician a says that some passenger vehicles use more than one evaporator. technician b says that some passenger vehicles use
dybincka [34]
<span>Tech A is correct. An evaporator is part of the heat exchange system in a vehicle. Sometimes vehicles will have more than one evaporator, each located in different areas of the vehicle. A condenser is part of the air conditioner system, and only one is normally required.</span>
3 0
3 years ago
To understand how to find the velocities of objects after a collision.
trasher [3.6K]

There are some information missing on Part D: Let the mass of object 1 be m and the mass of object 2 be 3m. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, what are the velocities of the two objects after the collision? Give the velocity v_1 of object one, followed by object v_2 of object two, separated by a comma. Express each velocity in terms of v.

Answer: Part A: v_1 = 0; v_2 = v

Part B: v_1 = v_2 = \frac{v}{2}

Part C: v_1 = \frac{v}{3}; v_2 = \frac{4v}{3}

Part D: v_1 = v_2 = \frac{v}{4}

Explanation: In elastic collisions, there no loss of kinetic energy and momentum is conserved. Momentum is determined as p = m.v and kinetic energy as K = \frac{1}{2}m.v^{2}

Conserved means that the amount of initial momentum is equal to the amount of final momentum:

m_{1}.v_{1i} + m_{2}.v_{2i} = m_{1}.v_{1f} + m_{2}.v_{2f}

No loss of energy means that initial kinietc energy is the same as the final kinetic energy:

\frac{1}{2}(m_{1}.v_{1i} + m_{2}.v_{2i}) = \frac{1}{2} (m_{1}.v_{1f} + m_{2}.v_{2f}  )

To determine the final velocities of each object, there are 2 variables and two equations, so working those equations, the result is:

v_{2f} = \frac{2.m_{1} } {m_{1} + m_{2} }.v_{1i}  + \frac{(m_{2} - m_{1})}{m_{1} + m_{2} } . v_{2i}

v_{1f} = \frac{m_{2} - m_{1} }{m_{1} + m_{2} } . v_{1i} + \frac{2.m_{2} }{m_{1} + m_{2} } .v_{2i}

For all the collisions, object 2 is static, i.e. v_{2i} = 0

<u>Part A</u>: Both objects have the same mass (m), v_{1i} = v and collision is elastic:

v_1 = \frac{m_{2} - m_{1}}{m_{1} + m_{2} } . v_{1i}

v_1 = 0

v_2 = \frac{2.m_{1} }{m_{1} + m_{2}}.v_{1i}

v_2 = \frac{2.m}{m+m}.v

v_2 = v

When the masses are the same and there is an object at rest, the object in movement stops and the object at rest has the same same velocity as the object who hit it.

<u>Part B</u>: Same mass but collision is inelastic: An inelastic collision means that after it happens, the two objects has the same final velocity, then:

m_{1}.v_{1i} + m_{2}.v_{2i} = m_{1}.v_{1f} + m_{2}.v_{2f}

m_{1}.v_{1i} = (m_{1}+m_{2}).v_{f}

v_{f} =  \frac{m_{1}.v_{1i}}{m_{1} + m_{2} }

v_1 = v_2 = \frac{m.v}{m+m}

v_1 = v_2 = \frac{v}{2}

<u>Part C:</u> Object 1 is 2m, object 2 is m and elastic collision:

v_1 = \frac{m_{2} - m_{1}}{m_{1} + m_{2} } . v_{1i}

v_1 = \frac{2m - m}{2m + m } . v

v_1 = \frac{v}{3}

v_2 = \frac{2.m_{1} }{m_{1} + m_{2}}.v_{1i}

v_2 = \frac{2.2m}{2m+m}.v

v_2 = \frac{4v}{3}

<u>Part D</u>: Object 1 is m, object is 3m and collision is inelastic:

v_1 = v_2 = v_{f} =  \frac{m_{1}.v_{1i}}{m_{1} + m_{2} }

v_1 = v_2 = \frac{m}{m+3m}.v

v_1 = v_2 = \frac{v}{4}

5 0
4 years ago
100 points!!! Please help!!!
Greeley [361]

Answer:

41°

Explanation:

Kinetic energy at bottom = potential energy at top

½ mv² = mgh

½ v² = gh

h = v²/(2g)

h = (2.4 m/s)² / (2 × 9.8 m/s²)

h = 0.294 m

The pendulum rises to a height of  above the bottom.  To determine the angle, we need to use trigonometry (see attached diagram).

L − h = L cos θ

cos θ = (L − h) / L

cos θ = (1.2 − 0.294) / 1.2

θ = 41.0°

Rounded to two significant figures, the pendulum makes a maximum angle of 41° with the vertical.

7 0
3 years ago
Infer why the output force exerted by a rake must be less than input force?
adell [148]
<h3><u>Answer and Explanation</u>;</h3>
  • input force refers to the force exerted on a machine, also known as the effort, while the output force is the force machines produce or the Load. The ratio of output force to input force gives the mechanical advantage of a simple machine
  • <em><u>The output force exerted by the rake must be less than the input force because one has to use force while raking. The force used to move the rake is the input force. </u></em>
  • <em><u>The rake is not going to be able to convert all of the input force into output force, the force the rake applies to move the leaves, because of friction.</u></em>
5 0
4 years ago
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