Answer:
yes
Step-by-step explanation:
The line intersects each parabola in one point, so is tangent to both.
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For the first parabola, the point of intersection is ...
y^2 = 4(-y-1)
y^2 +4y +4 = 0
(y+2)^2 = 0
y = -2 . . . . . . . . one solution only
x = -(-2)-1 = 1
The point of intersection is (1, -2).
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For the second parabola, the equation is the same, but with x and y interchanged:
x^2 = 4(-x-1)
(x +2)^2 = 0
x = -2, y = 1 . . . . . one point of intersection only
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If the line is not parallel to the axis of symmetry, it is tangent if there is only one point of intersection. Here the line x+y+1=0 is tangent to both y^2=4x and x^2=4y.
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Another way to consider this is to look at the two parabolas as mirror images of each other across the line y=x. The given line is perpendicular to that line of reflection, so if it is tangent to one parabola, it is tangent to both.
When the bases are the same, you can combine the exponents.
x³ [x is where the base is]
For example:
x³ · y² = x³y² You can't simplify this anymore because they have different bases/variables
[when you multiply a variable with an exponent by a variable with an exponent, you add the exponents together] so:
x² · x³ =
[when you multiply a variable with an exponent by an exponent, you multiply the exponents together] so:
(x³)²=