The purpose of the machine is to leverage its mechanical advantage such that the force it outputs to move the heavy object is greater than the force required for you to input.

But there's no such thing as a free lunch! When you apply the conservation of energy, the work the machine does on the object will always be equal to (in an ideal machine) or less than the work you input to the machine.

This means that you will apply a lesser force for a longer distance so that the machine can supply a greater force on the object to push it a smaller distance. That is the trade-off of using the machine: it enables you to use a smaller force but at the cost of having to apply that smaller force for a greater distance.

The answer is: The work input required will equal the work output.

8 0

3 years ago

The student thinks that two magnets on top of each other will produce a

insens350 [35]

Answer:

People have been aware of magnets and magnetism for thousands of years. The earliest records date back to ancient times, particularly in the region of Asia Minor called Magnesia-the name of this region is the source of words like magnet. Magnetic rocks found in Magnesia, which is now part of western Turkey, stimulated interest during ancient times. When humans first discovered magnetic rocks, they likely found that certain parts of these rocks attracted bits of iron or other magnetic rocks more strongly than other parts. These areas are called the poles of a magnet. A magnetic pole is the part of a magnet that exerts the strongest force on other magnets or magnetic material, such as iron. For example, the poles of the bar magnet shown in Figure 20.2 are where the paper clips are concentrated.

8 0

3 years ago

Find the acceleration of the blocks when the system is released. The coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.4, and the mass of eac

grin007 [14]

Answer:

a = 4.9(1 - sinθ - 0.4cosθ)

Explanation:

Really not possible without a complete setup.

I will ASSUME that this an Atwood machine with two masses (m) connected by an ideal rope passing over an ideal pulley. One mass hangs freely and the other is on a slope of angle θ to the horizontal with coefficient of friction μ. Gravity is g

F = ma

mg - mgsinθ - μmgcosθ = (m + m)a

mg(1 - sinθ - μcosθ) = 2ma

½g(1 - sinθ - μcosθ) = a

maximum acceleration is about 2.94 m/s² when θ = 0

acceleration will be zero when θ is greater than about 46.4°

8 0

3 years ago

A 0.37-kg object connected to a light spring with a force constant of 23.2 N/m oscillates on a frictionless horizontal surface.

mars1129 [50]

Answer:

a) v = 31.67 cm / s , b) v = -29.36 cm / s , c) v= 29.36 cm/s, d) x = 3.46 cm

Explanation:

The angular velocity in a simple harmonic movement is

w = √ K / m

w = √ 23.2 / 0.37

w = 7,918 rad / s

a) the expression against the movement is

x = A cos (wt + Ф)

Speed is

v = dx / dt = - A w sin (wt + Ф)

The maximum speed occurs for cos = ± 1

v = A w

v = 4.0 7,918

v = 31.67 cm / s

b) as the object is released from rest

0 = -A w sin (0+ Фi)

sin Ф = 0

Ф = 0

The equation is

x = 4.0 cos (7,918 t)

v = -4.0 7,918 sin (7,918 t)

v = - 31.67 sin (7.918t)

Let's look for the time for a displacement of x = 1.5 cm, remember that the angles must be in radians

7,918 t = cos⁻¹ 1.5 / 4.0

t = 1,186 / 7,918

t = 0.1498 s

We look for speed

v = -31.67 sin (7,918 0.1498)

v = -29.36 cm / s

c) if the object passes the equilibrium equilibrium position again at this point the velocity has the same module, but the opposite sign

v = 29.36 cm / s

d) let's look for the time for the condition v = v_max / 2

31.67 / 2 = 31.67 sin ( 7,918 t)

7.918t = sin⁻¹ 0.5

t = 0.5236 / 7.918

t = 0.06613

With this time let's look for displacement

x = 4.0 cos (7,918 0.06613)

x = 3.46 cm

6 0

3 years ago