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erik [133]
3 years ago
6

A bank has $8,000 in deposits and $6,000 in loans. it has loaned out all it can given the reserve requirement. it follows that t

he reserve requirement is
Business
1 answer:
True [87]3 years ago
4 0
<span>The reserve requirement, which is also referred to as the cash reserve ratio, is 25 percent. This is calculated by subtracting the $6,000 loaned out from the bank's $8,000 in deposits, yielding a reserve of $2,000. The reserve requirement is calculated by dividing $2,000 by $8,000.</span>
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If Wild Widgets, Inc., were an all-equity company, it would have a beta of 0.9. The company has a target debt-equity ratio of .4
Veronika [31]

Answer:

a. 6.5%

b. 13.06%

c. 10.91%

Explanation:

a.

Cost of debt of a bond is yield to maturity. Yield to maturity is the rate of return that a investor actually receives or a borrows actually pays on a bond. It is long term return or payment which is expressed in annual term.

Formula for yield to maturity is as follow

Yield to maturity = [ C + ( F - P ) / n ] / [ (F + P ) / 2 ]

By placing values in the formula

Assuming the bond face value is $1,000

Yield to maturity = [ (1000x7.2) + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / [ ( 1,000 + $1,090 ) / 2 ]

Yield to maturity = [ $72 + ( 1,000 - $1,090 ) / 20 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = [ $72 - $4.5 ] / $1,045

Yield to maturity = $67.5 / $1,045

Yield to maturity = 6.5%

So, the cost of Debt is 6.5%

b.

As 0.9 is the unlevered beta, We need Levered beta due to restructuring of capital.

Beta Levered = Beta Unlevered x ( 1 + ( 1 - tax rate ) x Debt / Equity)

Beta Levered = 0.9 x ( 1 + ( 1 - 0.35 ) x 0.4 )

Beta Levered = 1.134

Cost of equity can be calculated using CAPM

CAPM calculated the expected return on an equity investment based on the risk free rate, market premium and risk beta of the investment.

Formula for CAPM is as follow

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market premium)

As we know the Risk premium is the difference of market return and risk free rate.

Expected return = Risk free Rate + Beta ( Market Return - Risk free Rate )

Ra = Rf + β ( Rm - Rf )

Ra = 4.1% + 1.134 ( 12% - 4.1% )

Ra = 13.06%

Cost of Equity is 13.06%

c.

WACC is the average cost of capital of the firm based on the weightage of the debt and weightage of the equity multiplied to their respective costs.

According to WACC formula

WACC = ( Cost of equity x Weightage of equity )+ ( Cost of debt ( 1- t) x Weightage of debt )

Placing the values in formula

If the debt to equity 0.4  the equity value should be 1 and total capital is 1.4 ( 1 + 0.4 )

WACC = ( 13.06% x 1 / 1.4 )+ ( 6.5% ( 1- 0.35) x 0.4 / 1.4 ) = 9.71% + 1.2% = 10.91%

WACC is 10.91%

4 0
3 years ago
Laura is an 18-year-old student. She is going to open a checking account with an initial deposit of $100. She plans to then have
joja [24]

Answer:

the answer would be bankright because if u add 300 x 12 that would be 3,600 dollars and since shes 18 and that discount that would be five dollars and the monthly fee is 5 dollars. that would be 60s all together and she would have closest to to the her wanted amount so yeah.

Explanation:

brainliest pls

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On December 31 of the current year, Plunkett Company reported an ending inventory balance of $211,500. The following additional
Aloiza [94]

Answer:

$153,900

Explanation:

Calculation the amount that Plunkett should report in ending inventory on December 31

31 December Ending Inventory=$211,500 - $43,300 - $14,300

31 December Ending Inventory=$153,900

Therefore the amount that Plunkett should report in ending inventory on December 31 is $153,900

6 0
3 years ago
Lake Erie Company uses a plantwide overhead rate with machine hours as the allocation base. Next year, 700,000 units are expecte
Sergio039 [100]

Answer:

$7.70 per unit

Explanation:

For computing the overhead rate per unit we first need to compute the estimated amount which is as follows

Total manufacturing cost

= Department 1 + department 2

= $31,41,500.00 + $15,71,000.00

= $47,12,500.00

Total machine hours

= Department 1 + department 2

= 267,000 MH + 192,000 MH

= 459000 MH

Now predetermined overhead rate is

= Total manufacturing cost ÷ Total machine hours

= $4,712,500 ÷ 459,000 MHs

= $10.27 per MH

Now overhead per unit is

= Pre-determined overhead rate per MH × Machine Hours required per unit

= $10.27 per MH × 0.75 MHs per unit

= $7.70 per unit

This is the answer but the same is not provided in the given options

3 0
3 years ago
Jake Jones wants to deposit $100 per month into an account earning 5 percent for the next 4 years so he can purchase a used car
DanielleElmas [232]

Answer:

Future value of an annuity

Explanation:

It is the amount of a set of continuous installments up to a certain future date. It considering a fixed rate of return or Periodical payments. A higher interest rate provides a higher benefit of continuous payment.

Future value of an annuity  = p[\frac{(1+r)^n-1}{r} ]

Where, p = payment per month

            r = Rate of interest

            n = number of periodic payment

5 0
3 years ago
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