Answer
A. 25%
B.8%
C. 1.2%
Explanation:
a)
($250,000 − $200,000)/$200,000 = 0.25 or 25%
b)
($275 − $255)/$255 = 0.08 or 8%
Their was No exchange rate movements involved assets & returns all in U.S. dollars
c.
Step 1: £10,000 * $1.50/£ = $15,000 initial $ investment
Step 2: £10,000 * (1.10) = £11,000 at end of year
Step 3: £11,000 * $1.38/£ = $15,180 at end of year
Step 4: ($15,180 - $15,000)/$15,000 =
0.012, or 1.2%
Answer:
Explanation:
find the attached document below
Answer:
with the new rate we will pay in 58 months.
if there is 2% commision charge: 59.35 = 60 months
Explanation:
Currently we owe 10,000
This will be transfer to a new credit card with a rate of 6.2%
We are going to do monthly payment of 200 dollars each month
and we need to know the time it will take to pay the loan:
We use the formula for ordinary annuity and solve for time:
C $200.00
time n
rate 0.005166667 (6.2% rate divide into 12 months)
PV $10,000.0000
We arrenge the formula and solve as muhc as we can:
Now, we use logarithmics properties to solve for time:
-57.99227477 = 58 months
part B
If there is a charge of 2% then Principal = 10,000 x 102% = 10,200
we use that in the formula and solve:
-59.34880001 = 59.35 months
Answer:
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Explanation:
Hope this helped! :)
Have a good day!
Answer:
The correct answer would be, 10 Persons.
Explanation:
If there are 1000 people in the Big Bucks lottery and there is a 1 percent chance of winning 10 dollars prize if all 1000 people buy the lottery ticket of 10 dollars. If every person buys 10 dollar lottery ticket, then the chances of winning people would be calculated as follows:
Total number of People = 1000
Chances of winning the lottery = 1%
So How many people would win 10 dollar lottery = 1000 * 1%
= 1000 * 0.01
= 10 People.
So there are chances that 10 out of 1000 people will win the lottery.