1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
bogdanovich [222]
3 years ago
5

Edie Manson worked the following schedule: Monday, 8 hours; Tuesday, 9 hours; Wednesday, 7 hours 48 minutes; Thursday, 8 hours;

Friday, 8 hours. The employer pays overtime for all time worked in excess of 40 hours per week. Required: Determine Edie's total time worked according to the (a) quarter-hour method and (b) the hundredth-hour method. Which is the more favorable method for Edie, quarter-hour or hundredth-hour? (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your final answers to 2 decimal places.)
Business
1 answer:
melomori [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

hundredth = 40.48 which is 40.8

Quarter = 40.48 which is 40.75

Explanation:

The total number of hours worked in all days of the week for Manson is 40 hours 48 minutes.

In hudredth time the conversion of 40.48 equals 40.8 but in quarter time to round time to nearest quarter hour, we have to round the times within 7 minutes of a 15 minute mark to that 15 minutes.  Since 48 minutes are only 3 minutes more than 45 minutes, we round back to 45 minutes which is 0.75 in decimal.

Hence the hundredth hour timing is preferred for Edie Manson because it shows a higher time for hours worked and potentially more pay.

You might be interested in
Bonner Automotive has shareholders' equity of $218,700. The firm owes a total of $141,000 of which 40 percent is payable within
MA_775_DIABLO [31]

Answer:

$93,500

Explanation:

Net Working Capital = Current Assets - Current Liabilities

Current Assets = Total Equity + Liability - Fixed Assets

= $218,700 + $141,000 - $209,800 = $149,900

Current Liability = $141,000 X 40% = $56,400

As out of total due 40% is payable within a year, which means it is current liability.

Net working capital = $149,900 (current assets) - $56,400 (current liability)

= $93,500

6 0
3 years ago
Discontinue a Segment Product Tango has revenue of $1,150,000, variable cost of goods sold of $850,000, variable selling expense
Ronch [10]

Answer:

A) Differential analysis is shown below

B) its product should be continue.

Explanation:

As per the data given in the question,

a)

                      Continue product          Discontinue product        Differential

                        Tango(Alt 1)                       Tango(Alt 2)               Effects (Alt 2)

Revenue         $1,150,000                                $0                      -$1,150,000

Costs:

Variable COG Sold -$850,000                       $0                        $850,000

Variable selling and admin expenses  -$275,000     $0           $850,000

Fixed costs     -$125,000                                  $0                        $275,000

Profit(Loss)      -$100,000                                -$125,000            -$25,000

b)

As per analysis discontinuance of product Tango will enhance the amount of loss by $25,000, so it is recommended to continue the operation.

7 0
3 years ago
The following are a series of unrelated situations. Answer the questions relating to each of the five independent situations as
Solnce55 [7]

Answer:

Determine its bad debt expense for 2020. Bad debt expense for 20  

Cr Bad Debt Expense $ 524 - Credit, which means a profit in the income statement.

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts Balance

$ 4,380  - $524 = $ 3,856

Explanation:

December 31, 2020  

Dr Accounts receivable $ 48,200

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 4,380

Net Credit Sales $ 1,253,200

Buffalo Company estimates its bad debt expense to be 8% of gross accounts receivable.

Determine its bad debt expense for 2020. Bad debt expense for 20  

Dr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 524

Cr Bad Debt Expense $ 524

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts Balance

$ 4,380  - $524 = $ 3,856

The allowance for uncollectible Accounts must reflect as balance the value estimated as bad debts, which is 8% of gross accounts receivable. $48,200*0,08 = $3,856

If the company applies the allowance method, it means that the account Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts must show as balance the % estimated of accounts receivables as CREDIT, if the company had balances that differ from that value then it must be adjusted to the new estimated value.

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.

"When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible."

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets

The other way is to determine a percentage of the total amount of accounts receivable as bad debts, there are many ways to analyze accounts receivable and calculate the value of bad debts.

When the company has the percentage of uncollectible accounts, the required journal entry is Bad Expenses (debit) with Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (credit)

At the time of cancellation, since the expenses were recognized before, we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit)  with accounts receivable (credit), with this we are recognizing the bad credit of the company.

8 0
2 years ago
Carson County State Bank has a ratio of equity capital to total assets of 2.5%. The FDIC which regulates this bank has determine
Elenna [48]

Answer:

compliance risk

Explanation:

Compliance risk -

It refers to the risky situation , which can be due to some financial forfeiture , legal penalties , loss of material , when the company fails to follow the rules and  regulations , is referred to as compliance risk .

Hence , from the given scenario of the question,

The correct type of risk involved is compliance risk .

6 0
3 years ago
The town of matildaville is attempting to reduce the amount of litter on the side of the roads. which proposed program would be
inysia [295]
The proposed program would be a negative incentive is $200 fine for each piece of litter. When a town is attempting to reduce the amount of litter on the side road they need to think of the solution or a program that would be a negative incentive is $200 fine for each piece of litter.
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • Ursus, Inc., is considering a project that would have a five-year life and would require a $2,400,000 investment in equipment. A
    14·1 answer
  • Which two things do benefits tell you about a product
    13·1 answer
  • What financial behaviors will typically lead to a low credit score?
    7·1 answer
  • If the month-end bank statement shows a balance of $54,000, outstanding checks are $15,000, a deposit of $6,000 was in transit a
    12·1 answer
  • A manager is trying to see how business has been going. She wants to know if there is a need for any type of change in how they
    12·2 answers
  • 2. Consider a project which requires $1000 of initial investment and generates the next cash flows $300, $300 and $500 over the
    15·1 answer
  • Emphasis on product, sales-volume-oriented, needs of seller Customer wants, profit-oriented, future growth Sales-volume-oriented
    15·1 answer
  • Huey sold a warehouse with an original cost of $150,000 for $230,000 to an S corp where he owns a 51% interest. The S corp will
    7·1 answer
  • Mcgahen Medical Clinic measures its activity in terms of patient-visits. Last month, the budgeted level of activity was 1,080 pa
    7·1 answer
  • charles was a relatively new and inexperienced leader assigned to an experienced workgroup with long-standing performance norms
    13·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!