<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>
Required Return after 5 year = Real rate of return + Inflation premium + Risk premium
Required Return after 5 year = 5+2+4
Required Return after 5 year =11%
No of year left to maturity = 25
Annual Interest payment = 15%*1000 = 150
Face value of Bond = 1000
New price of the bond = pv (rate, nper, pmt, fv)
New price of the bond = pv (11%,25,150,1000)
New price of the bond = $ 1336.87
There will be no time to plan, demo, and improve together if there is no invention and planned iteration.
The Innovation and Planning (IP) Iteration happens at the end of each Program Increment (PI) and fulfils several functions. It serves as a buffer for fulfilling PI Objectives and allocates time for innovation, continuous education, PI Planning, and Inspect and Adapt (I&A) activities. Every iteration is important, and the teams are largely focused on producing short-term benefit. The Solution gets closer to market with each iteration. The focus on solution delivery is high and unwavering.
Iteration Planning is a meeting when all team members decide how much of the Team Backlog they will deliver during the upcoming Iteration. The effort is summarized by team as a set of committed Iteration Goals.
As a result, if there is no innovation and planned iteration, there will be no time to plan, showcase, and improve together.
To know more about innovation and planning iteration click here:
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Answer:
$924
Explanation:
The computation of the profit/loss is shown below:
= Sale - variable cost - fixed daily cost
where,
Sale = Selling price per room × Number of rooms sold
= $55 × 41 rooms
= $2,255
And, the variable cost would be
= Variable cost per room × Number of rooms sold
= $11 × 41 rooms
= $451
And, the fixed daily cost is $880
Now put these values to the above formula
So, the value would be equal to
= $2,255 - $451 - $880
= $924
Answer:
it will be a net loss of 560,000
It is better to produce at a loss of 60,000 than a loss of 620,000
That's because, the Division cover a good portion of their allocate fixed cost.
Explanation:
The fixed expense are allocate cost. Are unavoidable cost It will remain even if the division is dropped.
The sales and variable cost will be zero.
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}&Continued&Discontinued&Differential\\Sales&1,200,000&0&-1,200,000\\Variable&-640,000&0&640,000\\Allocate cost&-620,000&-620,000&0\\Result&-60,000&-620,000&-560,000\\\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D%26Continued%26Discontinued%26Differential%5C%5CSales%261%2C200%2C000%260%26-1%2C200%2C000%5C%5CVariable%26-640%2C000%260%26640%2C000%5C%5CAllocate%20cost%26-620%2C000%26-620%2C000%260%5C%5CResult%26-60%2C000%26-620%2C000%26-560%2C000%5C%5C%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
After posting the values, we calculate the differential income.
In this case it will be a loss for 560,000
<span>To find the compound interest of an investment you have to use this formula, A = P(1 + r/n)^nt, where A is the total amount you have after the investment period, P is the amount you invest or the amount you put in, r is the rate of the of the compound interest in this case 10%, n is the amount of time the interest will be compounded for example, 4 months a year(quarterly) or 6 months a year(semi annually), and t is the amount of time you invest in years.
So in this case you are going to substitute everything in the formula with their given value. So P = $700, r = 10%, n = 21 (because it is the number of months we invest for), and t = 2 years (because 21 months fit perfectly in 2 years, and t must always be in years). The resulting formula will be A = $700(1 + 0.1/21)^(21 x 2), which will give you an answer of $855 rounded to the nearest dollar.</span>
