Answer:
1 1/3 chocolate chips
Step-by-step explanation:
you have to divide 4 2/3 ÷ 3 1/2
change mixed number to improper fraction
14/3÷7/2
KFC-Keep Flip Change
14/3 × 2/7 = 28/21
28÷21= 1 1/3
Answer: a) x = 5 or -1 b) x = √3+2
c) x = -1/2 or -3/2
Step-by-step explanation:
a) (x − 2)² = 9
First step is to take the square root of both sides to eliminate the square
√ (x − 2)² = √9
x-2 = +-3
x = +3+2
x = 5 and;
x = -3+2
x = -1
x = 5 or -1
b) 3(x-2)² = 9
First we divide both sides by 3 to get;
(x-2)² = 9/3
(x-2)² = 3
Second step is to take the square root of both sides to eliminate the square
√(x-2)² = √3
x-2 = √3
x = √3+2
c) 6 = 24(x+1)²
Dividing both sides by 24, we have
6/24 = (x+1)²
1/4 = (x+1)²
Taking the square root of both sides we have
√1/4 = √(x+1)²
= +-1/2 = x+1
x = +1/2-1 = -1/2 and;
x = -1/2-1 = -3/2
x = -1/2 or -3/2
RS<span> ≅ </span><span>ST is the correct answer</span>
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
for the first one it's (x + 5) x (x - 7)
second one it's (x + 5) x (x + 7)
third one is (x - 5) x ( x + 7)
fourth one is (x -5) x (x - 7)
thats the answer
48π cm^3
Step-by-step explanation:
The formula for the volume of a cone is...
![V=\frac{1}{3}\pi r^2h](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=V%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B3%7D%5Cpi%20r%5E2h)
We can plug everything we know from the photo into the equation, but note that the picture gives us the diameter, which is 8, instead of the radius. The radius is half of the diameter, so the radius will be 4. Also we will be leaving pi as it is, instead of changing it to 3.14.
![V=\frac{1}{3}*(\pi *4*4*9)](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=V%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B3%7D%2A%28%5Cpi%20%2A4%2A4%2A9%29)
![V=\frac{1}{3}*(144\pi )](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=V%3D%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B3%7D%2A%28144%5Cpi%20%29)
V = 48π
The paper cone can hold <u><em>48π cubic centimeters</em></u> of water.