Answer:
$56,950
Explanation:
We will calculate the operating cash flow as follow;
OCF = {[($55 - $28.62) 8,500 ] - $170,000} × (1 - 0.35) + ($62,000 × 0.35)
= {[$224,230] - $170,000} × 0.65 + ($21,700)
= $35,249.5 + $21,700
= $56,950
Therefore, the operating cash flow is $56,950
Answer:
A. Restrict access
C. Establish responsibility
D. Document procedures
B. Independently verify
Explanation:
A. Restrict access, as the password is set to address the cash register, that is a security is being provided, and this is because, there is a restricted access, for the safety purpose.
C. Establish responsibility - As the treasurer is held liable of making and receiving any checks, and that he is the person who shall monitor such things, related to transactions in checks.
D. Document procedures - since a list is prepared for the checks received in mail, it is mere preparation of records and documentation of what checks are received and what not.
B. Independently verify - Bank Reconciliation Statement is prepared to verify the transactions and match the balance in books with that of the bank pass book.
Answer: $126,613
Explanation:
Net Present value of Project A is:
= Present value of $50,000 annuity + Present value of residual value - Initial investment
Present value of $50,000 annuity:
= 50,000 * ( 1 - ( 1 + rate)^-number of periods) / rate
= 50,000 * ( 1 - ( 1 + 12%) ⁻⁸) / 12%
= $248,382
Present value of residual value:
= 8,000 / ( 1 + 12%)⁸
= $3,231
Net present value
= 248,382 + 3,231 - 125,000
= $126,613
Answer:
A) Valuable assets such as the company's reputation, the quality of its work force, and the strength of its management are not captured on the balance sheet.
Explanation:
As we know that the balance sheet records the assets, liabilities and the equity of the company. Now the main problem with the balance sheet is that the valuable assets such as reputation of the company, work force quality, management strength would not captured here as it only records the monetary transactions.
Therefore the correct option is a.
Answer:
C $1,104
Explanation:
TIPS are the form of bonds which are specially designed for the purpose to protect the investors against the inflation.
The principal value of the bond in case of TIPS is adjusted for yearly inflation.
Based on the above discussion the value of TIPS bond can be calculated using the below formula:
Value of bond at maturity=Principal amount (1+inflation rate)^5
=1,000(1+2%)^5
=1,104
So the answer is C $1,104
