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Oksi-84 [34.3K]
3 years ago
9

A scientist prepares a colloidal solution and pours it into a glass tank. She then flashes a beam of white light into one end of

the tank. From the opposite end of the tank, the exiting light appears reddish. What can be concluded from this experiment?
A) Light that scattered in the tank is independent of the frequency of light.
Eliminate
B) The lower frequencies of visible light were scattered by the colloid particles.
C) The higher frequencies of visible light were scattered by the colloid particles.
D) Light that scattered in the tank is independent of the size of colloid particles.
Physics
2 answers:
hammer [34]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

C)

Explanation:

<em>The visible light spectrum</em> refers to the portion of the electromagnetic radiation spectrum that humans can see. In this spectrum, <u>higher frequencies are bluish while lower frequencies are reddish</u>.

The beam of white light contains all frequencies of the visible light spectrum, and from the experiment we see that only the lower frequencies got through the colloidal solution. This means that the higher frequencies must have been scattered by the colloid particles.

balu736 [363]3 years ago
5 0
The answer is C) <span>The higher frequencies of visible light were scattered by the colloid particles.</span>
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Your answer would be D. be pushed down into their seats.

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6 0
3 years ago
When light passes through a convex lens, it does this.....
Tpy6a [65]

Explanation:

6. Converge or come together

7. convex

3 0
3 years ago
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Besides ethical considerations, what is another reason why Milgram’s experiment may be difficult to duplicate?
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8 0
3 years ago
You buy a magnifying glass at the store. The lens in the magnifying glass is a double convex lens, a lens with two convex curved
Leokris [45]

Answer:

30 cm

Explanation:

f = Focal length = 25 cm

R = Radius of curvature (both sides are equal)

\mu = Refractive index of lens = 1.6

The lens maker formula is given by

\frac{1}{f}=(\mu-1)(\frac{1}{R_1}-\frac{1}{R_2})\\\Rightarrow \frac{1}{f}=(\mu-1)(\frac{1}{R}-\frac{1}{-R}) minus sign because it is on the other side

\\\Rightarrow \frac{1}{f}=(\mu-1)\frac{2}{R}\\\Rightarrow R=2(\mu-1)f\\\Rightarrow R=2(1.6-1)\times 25\\\Rightarrow R=30\ cm

The radius of curvature of the glass surface is 30 cm

8 0
4 years ago
(Please help 25 points)
Maksim231197 [3]

The potential energy (P.E) of X at r is less than P.E at s.

The total energy (T.E) of Y is less than total energy (T.E) of X.

The PE of Y at v is greater than the PE of Z at c.

The speed of Y at i is .greater than that at v.

The kinetic energy (KE) of z at u is less than that at n.

The PE of Y at s is less than the PE of X at c.

The PE of X at c is less than the PE of Z at c.

The PE of X at c is less than the PE of Z at c.

<h3>PE of X at r  and at s</h3>

The potential energy (P.E) of X at r is less than P.E at s due to greater displacement at s.

<h3>TE of Y is .... the TE of X</h3>

The total energy (T.E) of Y is less than total energy (T.E) of X because X has greater displacement from the planet.

<h3>PE of Y at v is .... the PE of Z at c</h3>

The PE of Y at v is greater than the PE of Z at c due to greater displacement at v.

<h3>Speed of Y at i is .... that at u</h3>

The speed of Y at i is .greater than that at v because i is closer to the planet than v.

<h3>KE of Z at u is .... that at n</h3>

The kinetic energy (KE) of z at u is less than that at n because n is closer to the planet and will have greater velocity.

<h3> PE of Y at s is .... the PE of X at c</h3>

The PE of Y at s is less than the PE of X at c, because position c has greater displacement.

<h3>The TE of Z is .... the TE of X</h3>

The TE of Z is greater than the TE of X due to greater displacement of Z from the planet.

<h3>The PE of X at c is .... the PE of Z at c</h3>

The PE of X at c is less than the PE of Z at c due to greater displacement of Z from c.

Learn more about potential energy here: brainly.com/question/1242059

#SPJ1

3 0
2 years ago
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