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Drupady [299]
3 years ago
7

angelina has 5 cakes. She wants to cut them into 1/5 pieces. How many pieces will she be able to cut??

Mathematics
1 answer:
Bezzdna [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

25 pieces

Step-by-step explanation:

If she has 5 cakes, and she wants 5 pieces from each cake, simply multiply 5 times 5 to get 25 pieces of cake.

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Is this the correct answer?
satela [25.4K]

The answer is 25 5/8ths.

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4 years ago
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Two quantities are related, as shown in the table:
vampirchik [111]
Y=mx+b, m=delta y / delta x...from the table we can see that m=3/2 so our equation becomes:

y=3x/2 + b, using any point, I'll use (2,2) we can now solve for b, or the y-intercept...

2=3(2)/2 +b

2=3+b, b=-1  our line is thus:

y=1.5x-1
6 0
4 years ago
All of it I'll give you more later
faltersainse [42]
The 1st one is a because 8 • 4 = 32
7 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP!!!! WILL GIVE BARAINLYIST!!!!
Klio2033 [76]

Experimental probability = 1/5

Theoretical probability = 1/4

note: 1/5 = 0.2 and 1/4 = 0.25

=============================================

How I got those values:

We have 12 hearts out of 60 cards total in our simulation or experiment. So 12/60 = (12*1)/(12*5) = 1/5 is the experimental probability. In the simulation, 1 in 5 cards were a heart.

Theoretically it should be 1 in 4, or 1/4, since we have 13 hearts out of 52 total leading to 13/52 = (13*1)/(13*4) = 1/4. This makes sense because there are four suits and each suit is equally likely.

The experimental probability and theoretical probability values are not likely to line up perfectly. However they should be fairly close assuming that you're working with a fair standard deck. The more simulations you perform, the closer the experimental probability is likely to approach the theoretical one.

For example, let's say you flip a coin 20 times and get 8 heads. We see that 8/20 = 0.40 is close to 0.50 which is the theoretical probability of getting heads. If you flip that same coin 100 times and get 46 heads, then 46/100 = 0.46 is the experimental probability which is close to 0.50, and that probability is likely to get closer if you flipped it say 1000 times or 10000 times.

In short, the experimental probability is what you observe when you do the experiment (or simulation). So it's actually pulling the cards out and writing down your results. Contrast with a theoretical probability is where you guess beforehand what the result might be based on assumptions. One such assumption being each card is equally likely.

7 0
3 years ago
Please help! Will mark brainliest!
Anastaziya [24]

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

I am not quite sure if this is correct.

first I figured out how many minutes per 1 mile: 24

then I figured out how exactly much time 1.5 hours is: 1 hour and 12 minutes. then I subtracted that from 2 hours, knowing that 1.5 hours is 3 miles, I found that there was only 48 minutes remaining in that hour, which would be 24×2, aka 2 miles. so the final answer would be 5 miles, sorry for the run-on sentence. Yet again, I am not quite sure if this is right-

-From: Lemon

4 0
3 years ago
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