Answer: Angles 4 and 5
Step-by-step explanation:
Supplementary angles are angles that add up to 180. The only angle pairs the add up to 180 (you can tell by seeing if two angles are the only two on a straight line) are angles 4 and 5, and angles 3 and 4. Angles 3 and 4 isn’t an option, so it’s 4 and 5.
0.4 lbs each.
<h3>Further explanation</h3>
<u>Given:
</u>
- The total weight of 6 pieces of butter and a bag of sugar is 3.8 Ib.
- The weight of the bag of sugar is 1.4 Ib
<u>Question:
</u>
What is the weight of each piece of butter?
<u>The Process:
</u>
The two steps for obtaining the weight of each piece of butter are as follows:
<u>Step-1:</u> the total amount of butter is the total bag of butter and sugar subtracted by the weight of the bag of sugar.
<u>Step-2:</u> the total amount of butter divided by the number of pieces of butter is the the weight of each piece of butter.
Let's also consider the following quick steps.
<u>Quick steps:
</u>
Therefore, the weight of each piece of butter is 0.4 lbs.
<h3>Learn more
</h3>
- What is the cost of the toy car? brainly.com/question/5282516
- How much netting did Mrs.Nguyen use per goal? brainly.com/question/13174287
- How much punch is in each bowl? brainly.com/question/1878521
Keyword: the total weight, 6 pieces of butter, a bag of sugar is 3.8 Ib, if the weight of the bag of sugar is 1.4 Ib, each piece, subtracted, divide
Answer:
TRUE. We need to use the chain rule to find the derivative of the given function.
Step-by-step explanation:
Chain rule to find the derivative,
We have to find the derivative of F(x)
If F(x) = f[g(x)]
Then F'(x) = f'[g(x)].g'(x)
Given function is,
y =
Here g(x) = (2x + 3)
and f[g(x)] = 

y' = 
= 
y' = 
Therefore, it's true that we need to use the chain rule to find the derivative of the given function.
We can first add up the cards so we know how many we have in all:
16 + 16 + 18 = 50 cards
We can do this a little bit easier if we get the "16"-cards in one number total.
16 + 16 = 32

= 32 x 2 =

50 x 2

= 64 : 2 = 32 %
100
We did just divide the % of two types cards on 2, so we get the %-chance of 1 type card.
I am not quite sure, but I think that 32 % is the correct answer.