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WINSTONCH [101]
3 years ago
7

Why do some iron objects such as ships float when placed in water while other iron objects such as nails sink? 1. iron ships hav

e large air pockets inside them, making them less dense than water and thus able to float. 2. the same reason that makes planes fly in the sky?
Physics
2 answers:
Ksenya-84 [330]3 years ago
8 0
Iron ships have large air pockets inside them making them less dense than water and thus able to float. Iron objects does not have any air pockets to make them light . If you ever heard that ships sink its because  the ship must  have  a hole in the air pocket and (air pockets are at the bottom layer of ships) water fills through the air pocket and adds weight making it sink.


Hope this helps :)  
Tems11 [23]3 years ago
4 0
1 is the correct answer
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The position of a car at time t is given by the function p(t)=t2 2t−4. What is the velocity when p(t)=11? assume t≥0
AysviL [449]

The velocity when function p(t)=11 is 8 .

According to the question

The position of a car at time t  represented by function :

p(t)=t^{2} +2t-4

Now,

When  function p(t) = 11 , t will be

p(t)=t^{2} +2t-4

11 = t²+2t-4

0 = t² + 2t - 15

or

t² +2t-15 = 0

t² +(5-3)t-15 = 0

t² +5t-3t-15 = 0

t(t+5)-3(t+5) = 0

(t-3)(t+5) = 0  

t = 3 , -5  

as t cannot be -ve as given ( t≥0)

so,

t = 3

Now,

the velocity when p(t)=11

As we know velocity = \frac{position}{time}

therefore to get the value of velocity from  function p(t)

we have to differentiate the function with respect to time

\frac{d(p(t))}{dt} =\frac{d}{dt} (t^{2} +2t-4)

v(t) = 2t + 2  

where v(t) = velocity at that time

as t = 3 for  p(t)=11  

so ,

v(t) = 2t + 2  

v(t) = 2*3 + 2  

v(t) = 8

Hence, the velocity when function p(t)=11 is 8 .

To know  more about function here:

brainly.com/question/12431044

#SPJ4

4 0
2 years ago
3. An engine’s fuel is heated to 2,000 K and the surrounding air is 300 K. Calculate the ideal efficiency of the engine. Hint: T
maksim [4K]

Answer: E = 0.85

Therefore the efficiency is: E = 0.85 or 85%

Explanation:

The efficiency (e) of a Carnot engine is defined as the ratio of the work (W) done by the engine to the input heat QH

E = W/QH.

W=QH – QC,

Where Qc is the output heat.

That is,

E=1 - Qc/QH

E =1 - Tc/TH

where Tc for a temperature of the cold reservoir and TH for a temperature of the hot reservoir.

Note: The unit of temperature must be in Kelvin.

Tc = 300K

TH = 2000K

Substituting the values of E, we have;

E = 1 - 300K/2000K

E = 1 - 0.15

E = 0.85

Therefore the efficiency is: E = 0.85 or 85%

4 0
4 years ago
How does the sun get its power? In which region of the sun does this process occur?
vodka [1.7K]

The sun gets its power from nuclear fusion. In the suns core.

4 0
3 years ago
Of the superalloys, the cobalt-base types are the easiest to braze. True or False?
Ivahew [28]

It is false thats my answer


3 0
4 years ago
A 185 g block is pressed against a spring of force constant 1.60 kN/m until the block compresses the spring 10.0 cm. The spring
denis-greek [22]

Answer:

d = 5.10 m

Explanation:

As we know that here on the plane of the inclined there is no frictional force

So in these cases we can say that total mechanical energy will always remains conserved

so here we can say that

spring potential energy = gravitational potential energy of the block

as we know from the formula

\frac{1}{2}kx^2 = mgh

now plug in the values in it

\frac{1}{2}(1.60 \times 10^3)(0.10)^2 = (0.185)(9.81)h

8 = 1.81 h

h = 4.42 m

now as we know that the angle of inclination is 60 degree and height raised is 4.42 m

so here maximum distance moved along the inclined plane will be

\frac{h}{d} = sin60

d = \frac{h}{sin60}

d = \frac{4.42}{sin60} = 5.10 m

6 0
3 years ago
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