Answer:
234958
Step-by-step explanation:
used caculator
I think there is a diagram given for the question above. Nevertheless, here is what I have based on my research.
<span>Given: Line segment AB is congruent to line segment AC, angle BAD is congruent to CAD
Prove: line segment AD bisects line segment BC
</span>
<span>Statements:
1. line segment AB is congruent to line segment AC
2. angle BAD is congruent to angle CAD
3. line segment AD is congruent to line segment AD
4. Triangle BAD is congruent to triangle CAD
5. line segment BD is congruent to line segment CD
6. Line segment AD bisects line segment BC
Reasons:
1. Given
2. Given
3. Reflexive Property
4. SAS
5. </span><span>CPCTC Theorem</span><span>
6. Definition of Segment Bisector</span>
Answer:
The rate of change of the function is 2.
Step-by-step explanation:
As we know that if the graph of a liner function passes through the two gives points on the coordinate plane, then the rate of change of the function will be the slope of the given line.
The points are:




Therefore, the rate of change of the function is 2.
as I read it, what I get is that
x = returned profits or yielded interest from investment in A
y = returned profits or yielded interest from investment in B
T = total amount invested or namely A + B.
4000 were invested in A, and it yielded 5%, what's 5% of 4000? (5/100)(4000) = 200 = x.
we know the total amount is T, since A get 4000, B must have gotten T - 4000, or the slack. We also know that B yielded a 2% profit, well, what's 2% of T - 4000? (2/100)(T-4000) = y.
we also know that, whatever "x" and "y" are, their sum total yielded a 4% returns from T, or the total principal, what's 4% of T? (4/100)T = 0.04T.
![\bf \begin{cases} T=\textit{total principal}\\[-0.5em] \hrulefill\\ A=4000\\ x = \stackrel{\textit{5\% of A}}{200}\\[-0.5em] \hrulefill\\ B=T-4000\\ y=\stackrel{\textit{2\% of B}}{0.02(T-4000)} \end{cases} \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbf%20%5Cbegin%7Bcases%7D%20T%3D%5Ctextit%7Btotal%20principal%7D%5C%5C%5B-0.5em%5D%20%5Chrulefill%5C%5C%20A%3D4000%5C%5C%20x%20%3D%20%5Cstackrel%7B%5Ctextit%7B5%5C%25%20of%20A%7D%7D%7B200%7D%5C%5C%5B-0.5em%5D%20%5Chrulefill%5C%5C%20B%3DT-4000%5C%5C%20y%3D%5Cstackrel%7B%5Ctextit%7B2%5C%25%20of%20B%7D%7D%7B0.02%28T-4000%29%7D%20%5Cend%7Bcases%7D%20%5C%5C%5C%5C%5B-0.35em%5D%20~%5Cdotfill)

I believe this question is referring to purchasing a discount on a loan's interest rate by putting more towards closing costs. For mortgages, sometimes they will allow you to "buy" a smaller interest rate. For example:
<span>Loan A has an interest rate of 4.5% and no closing costs. </span>
<span>Loan B has an interest rate of 4.375%, but has $1000 in closing costs. </span>
<span>Normally, Loan A would be the better choice if you plan on keeping the home short term, but Loan B would be more beneficial for keeping the loan long-term. I don't really care to spend the time that is necessary to come up with an actual scenario, but I hope that helps enough for you to understand the question.</span>