If you were to make both x's equivalent, you'd have to multiply the first equation by 2 to get rid of the coefficient, 1/2. However, you'd have to multiply 2 onto -8 as well, therefore the equation would turn into x - 16 = 18. That is not equivalent to x - 8 = 18.
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Answer:
almost 0%
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that for an insurance company with 10000 automobile policy holders, the expected yearly claim per policyholder is $240 with a standard deaviation of 800
using normal approximation, the probability that the total yearly claim exceeds $2.7 million is calculated as follows:
Sea sumatoria de x = SUMX, tenemos que:


= P (z => 3.75)
= 1 - P ( z < 3.75)
P = 1 - 0.999912
P = 0.000088
Which means that the probability is almost 0%
So it cost them 89.97 and they're selling it for 139.99, the difference is 50.02.
so, the markup is 50.02, if we take 89.97 to be the 100%, how much is 50.02 off of that in percentage?