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s2008m [1.1K]
3 years ago
9

If f^-1(x) is the inverse of f(x), which statement must be true?

Mathematics
2 answers:
m_a_m_a [10]3 years ago
8 0
The range of f⁻¹(x) is the domain of f(x) and vice versa
The domain of f⁻¹(x) is the range of f(x) and vice versa
and for every x of te domain: f(f⁻¹(x)) = x and f⁻¹(f(x)) = x
k0ka [10]3 years ago
5 0
F(f-1x)   will be equal to x

take a simple example 

f(x) = 2x

so x = f(x) / 2

 f-1(x) = x/2

f(f-1x) =  2 ( x/2)  = 2 * x/2 = x
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