Answer:
for the second question u have asked
Step-by-step explanation:
Are the inequalities x > 3 and 3 < x equivalent?
They both say that x must be larger than 3. No bickering here. So yep, they're equivalent.
Inequalities usually have a lot of solutions—in fact, infinitely many. Think about the inequality x > 3. This inequality states that "x must be larger than 3." Any number bigger than 3 is a solution to this inequality. That includes 3.001, 3.0001, 4, 5, 2 million, and every other number bigger than 3. We don't have time at the moment to name them all,
<u>Let's solve this problem step-by-step</u>:

<u>Thus v = 14</u>
<u />
<u>Answer: v= 14</u>
<u></u>
Hope that helps!
The last choice is right sure because this is a perfect square trinomial
(4xy -3z)^2 = 16x^2y^2 -24xyz +9z^2
hope this will help you