Answer:
See below
Step-by-step explanation:
Here we need to prove that ,

Imagine a right angled triangle with one of its acute angle as
.
- The side opposite to this angle will be perpendicular .
- Also we know that ,


And by Pythagoras theorem ,

Where the symbols have their usual meaning.
Now , taking LHS ,

- Substituting the respective values,





Since LHS = RHS ,
Hence Proved !
I hope this helps.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:What??
The new mean age will be greater than 14.2 years because the teacher is older than the previous mean.
Answer:
The integral is equal to
for an arbitrary constant C.
Step-by-step explanation:
a) If
then
so the integral becomes
. (the constant of integration is actually 5C, but this doesn't affect the result when taking derivatives, so we still denote it by C)
b) In this case
hence
. We rewrite the integral as
.
c) We use the trigonometric identity
is part b). The value of the integral is
. which coincides with part a)
Note that we just replaced 5+C by C. This is because we are asked for an indefinite integral. Each value of C defines a unique antiderivative, but we are not interested in specific values of C as this integral is the family of all antiderivatives. Part a) and b) don't coincide for specific values of C (they would if we were working with a definite integral), but they do represent the same family of functions.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
I am sorry this is to confusing for me